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Does the intention behind some GPL clause matter or how some court would interpret the text?

For a court the intention very much matters – in case of doubt, the court will always resort to interpreting the intention.

At least in Germany – and BMW is German.

Really? I would consider it to be quite common, given the prevalence of used cars.

Which would be direct, not indirect. You are in possession of the vehicle, with the legal standing of an owner.

People buying used cars is pretty common...

In that case you have the car, and the VIN – and received the software directly.

Please specify a use case where you received the software without the VIN, thanks.

And also direct.