That being said, the point of a basic income in the first place is to introduce financial stability to all households so any costs associated with preventing lending on basic income collateral may be societally optimal.
That being said, the point of a basic income in the first place is to introduce financial stability to all households so any costs associated with preventing lending on basic income collateral may be societally optimal.
The reason why banks require evidence of ability to repay the loan is because, without them, there would be a huge incentive for borrowers to take loans without paying them back. This is where the adverse selection comes in - the information asymmetry results from the borrowers knowing what their intent for the loan is and the incentive to mislead the lender. This leads to lenders being more wary (and implementing requirements) when issuing loans.
Anyone getting basic income should be completely free to spend it any way they want. That is essential.
Such as to pay off a loan? Therein lies the problem: if you make it illegal to lend money explicitly based on BI, and the debtor pays with BI, who is liable? And if someone is liable, is the debtor truly free to spend BI as they wish? If nobody is liable, then what stops me from claiming that my BI is instead my paycheck, and then taking a loan based on it?