> http://www.theglobeandmail.com/news/national/article28634862...
> http://www.theglobeandmail.com/news/national/article28634862...
I think the effect you mention is probably a lot more relevant to the people selling at below market to speculators that approached them, because if they were assuming that they could finance a home purchase in the city with the proceeds of the sale, they're going to find their purchasing power significantly weaker than they were probably expecting (given that they just clear 3x their original investment, "YAY!"). On top of that, with many agents speculating themselves, and a lot of foreign investors on the buy side of the market, they're likely to find that they are now swimming with sharks having just sold their boat.
Additional commentary: If you find yourself in this situation, you might as well try to get a loan to buy a new house before you sell your current shelter from the elements. If you're no longer able to get a loan for an amount that would get you a house in your area, perhaps that's an indication that you should be very careful with how you proceed. It still may be worth selling, even taking a below market offer (conceivably). But now you know that selling your house is going to mean moving to a more buyer friendly market in advance of committing yourself. Or... if you're the gambling type, renting in anticipation of a bubble burst (though I think heavy foreign investment messes with people's expectations of what is too hot for a given market; certainly it is fickle, but can potentially prop prices up significantly above historical levels for a long time).
This is simply 3 rapid sales compressed into a single closing to save on the transfer taxes. Literally everyone wins.
How is this different from, for example, complaining that it's unfair for a stock to continue going up after you sell it?
If buyers are willing to pay a certain amount for a house of their choice, isn't that the definition of market price?
The contract is very clear when it says, "Buyer and/or assigns." In most states, that is written at the very beginning of the contract as well.
Ethics revolves around ensuring that everybody's interests are protected. A broker is supposed to be a neutral party that does not have an interest in the transaction. The seller's interests are not being represented.
The average property owner doesn't understand the market and is expecting the real estate agent to provide accurate price estimations.
I don't understand, ethically, how this sort of thing could be legal as its clearly a clause meant to allow misrepresentation to take rubes for their money.
If they are acting like an adviser, there's something at least a bit smarmy about not actually advising. If they were simply interested buyers, its harder to impute an obligation to the seller.