No, actually, he was just talking about the concept of "rich and poor", nothing at all to do with Marx's theories about owning the means of production.

The concept of rich and poor relies on the fact that the poor can afford less goods than the rich because of scarcity. I.e. in that simplistic scenario, if there was no scarcity, the concept of "poor" wouldn't exist because they'd have access to as much resources at the rich. Though we are heading into a utopian-level discussion at that point.