Study Finds That Asians Take Fewest Vacation Days, Europeans Take Most
forbes.com
forbes.com
No lie, that's a qualified success: it used to be 14 days offered and 8 exercised in Japan, as recently as a few years ago. (The 2006ish timeframe? Read it in a work-related report. [+])
[+] Proving once again that you can almost never underestimate how bad the Japanese work culture is, the actual stats from 平成19年就労条件総合調査結果の概況 (covering 2006) were, at companies above 1,000 employees, 9.7 days offered and 5 actually used. You might think "Well maybe that's the megacorps being shoddy" but the actual numbers get worse as you go down the size-of-employer table.
I.e. I hear 12 days off and I shrug. I hear 18 hour workdays and never seeing your family and my jaw drops.
I think if I worked 20h weeks, 0 days off would be okay. You never get THAT burned out over a week that the weekend can't cure you.
But if I worked 80 hour weeks, I would need 30 days off per year to stay long term sane.
I definitely felt that dread in the past though, but don't think that is how it has to be. There are great roles out there!
In other words, quite a bit of those long work hours are absolutely useless.
http://ec.europa.eu/trade/policy/countries-and-regions/count...
1) Labour productivity is measured as the _average_ output per worker, i.e. total output divided by total number of workers. It does not measure the _marginal_ output of an additional worker (i.e. the derivative of output with respect to number of workers).
2) Labour is not the only factor of production. There is also land, financial capital, technology, etc.
3) Haircuts in Norway cost more than haircuts in South Korea. Is a South Korean barber less productive than a Norwegian one?
1. Median household income (which should mostly be wages and not land, financial capital, technology).
2. Divided by purchasing power parity (to normalize for different prices in the country).
3. Divided by average hours worked per week for households with median income.
This is however assuming that if an employee gets paid X (in purchasing power parity) for their work, then their generated value is some linear constant of X. I don't know how to compensate for the scenario where this is false.
Here it is in the last 2 years falling compared to USD and EUR.
http://www.xe.com/currencycharts/?from=NOK&to=USD&view=2Y http://www.xe.com/currencycharts/?from=NOK&to=EUR&view=2Y
On the bright side, I'm a shift worker, so I get to take holidays whenever I want, no questions asked. It's bundled in with my PTO, except it doesn't roll over if I don't use it. As a result, your first seven days of PTO are "holidays."
If you add in the shorter weekends, I'm not sure if you even get to the equivalent of zero days off.
But those public holidays come at a cost -- trying to do any sort of activity during Golden Week is next to impossible because of overcrowding.
It's okay to be more specific - the data and conclusions would still be interesting even if they weren't trying to claim some magical cultural link among Saudi Arabia, Russia, Mongola, Singaport, Bangladesh, etc...
France pretend to cap work at 35h/week, next to it is Switzerland where we have 20 days of vacation and 42h/week.
Not trying to be snarky, I just want to point out that it's not like you can take vacation year round (even if you're in Sweden..), even though we certainly have quite a bit of vacation (25 days is the norm) and no problem taking half a year of per parent per child.
For those interested, source data for the study.
https://images.trvl-media.com/media/content/expus/graphics/o...
Note: Marx wouldn't agree with me. He would say that the rich will still have the means of production (automation), so the poor will still do stupid jobs to get paid that little to afford the products made by automation. It's basically like it now, but I hope this will change.
There is no startup that can fix this. We need to collectively own the automation to not work.
No, actually, it's based on ownership of the means of production.
The concept of rich and poor relies on the fact that the poor can afford less goods than the rich because of scarcity. I.e. in that simplistic scenario, if there was no scarcity, the concept of "poor" wouldn't exist because they'd have access to as much resources at the rich. Though we are heading into a utopian-level discussion at that point.
"This “alienation” (to use a term which will be comprehensible to the philosophers) can, of course, only be abolished given two practical premises. For it to become an “intolerable” power, i.e. a power against which men make a revolution, it must necessarily have rendered the great mass of humanity “propertyless,” and produced, at the same time, the contradiction of an existing world of wealth and culture, both of which conditions presuppose a great increase in productive power, a high degree of its development. And, on the other hand, this development of productive forces (which itself implies the actual empirical existence of men in their world-historical, instead of local, being) is an absolutely necessary practical premise because without it want is merely made general, and with destitution the struggle for necessities and all the old filthy business would necessarily be reproduced; and furthermore, because only with this universal development of productive forces is a universal intercourse between men established, which produces in all nations simultaneously the phenomenon of the “propertyless” mass (universal competition), makes each nation dependent on the revolutions of the others, and finally has put world-historical, empirically universal individuals in place of local ones. Without this, (1) communism could only exist as a local event; (2) the forces of intercourse themselves could not have developed as universal, hence intolerable powers: they would have remained home-bred conditions surrounded by superstition; and (3) each extension of intercourse would abolish local communism."
Basically his assumption was that it will never be possible or politically tenable under capitalism to change the system to channel enough capital back to the general population (e.g. lets say via taxes to fund basic income to a level equivalent to lost incomes) to allow people to continue to consume enough to allow manufacturers to continue to grow, and that the result would be ever greater cycles of economic crashes until the contradiction of capacity to create wealth coupled with unemployment and/or underpayment gets great enough to cause people to rise up against it.
I'm worried that, on current history, this is more likely to be ""solved"" by genocide than leisure.
Compare that with London, starts around 5pm and pretty much everyone is dispersed by 7pm.
It's not insufficient data, it's uncharacterized data.
If more-or-less everyone with exposure to both cultures is in broad agreement about the differences, that's not "insufficient". It's probably actually more data than any formal study would generate.
But it's also lower-quality data, with a greater chance of being distorted by various cognitive biases. Which means that it doesn't meet current regulatory standards[1] for use on large protected-class[2] groups of humans.
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[1] as loosely and collectively defined by the morality police, loudest / most extreme non-ignorable activists, Internet Lynch Mob, etc
[2] which includes pretty much anything these days
I mean, I know asian work cultures are "harder" than my european one, but is it incorrect to spell that in a public/social context?
To your point, a better title might refer to "Asian Countries" and "European Countries" instead of individuals. Europeans living in Japanese companies work similar days/hours as their coworkers, of course.
It's a social study, not geography. Assuming that Japanese are like that or french people are like that is indeed prejudice, since there is no data to back things up but individual bias, or bias promoted by movies or the pop culture.
I agree with your second point.
"According to the study, South Korea and Japan lead the legions of overworked...On the other side of the globe, workers in Finland, France, Germany and Spain are all given 30 days of vacation each year"
Not everything that's "obvious" is actually correct. There is value in verifying such things.
There is also value in quantifying such things beyond the level of detail available from "but everybody knows...".
An odd combination for any "European" country, yet they're technically in Southern Europe.
Nothing against it, really, but they don't fit in with the neighbors, for sure...
If you take any given coordinates available in Europe, you're bound to find oddballs.
Oh, and regarding Islam, there's Wahhabism and there's the Ottoman-style Sunni Islam (I don't know the historic name for it). The two have little in common. The Muslims in Europe are 99% results of Ottoman influence. So European Muslims, especially in the Balkans, are quite moderate.
- Wahhabism seems to be sound, certainly more than selective reading of holy books and closing eyes on some scenes. Of course, I'm not Muslim so I can't really judge.
- Saudi Arabia is pouring billions of oil dollars into promoting Wahhabism worldwide: building mosques, educating priests, etc etc.
- There does not seem to be a productive, attractive doctrine for moderate, tolerant Muslim. As far as I see, it's pacified on ad hoc basis.
1. https://www.gfmag.com/global-data/economic-data/economic-dat...
Furthermore, the only Asian country if comparable GOP/capita is Japan which has smaller growth than Europe for two decades...
Switzerland, Sweden, Norway, and Australia have very high quality-of-life (according to the Economist Intelligence Unit) and very high per-capita GDP[1]. Note that Switzerland's and Australia's GDP per capita are more than double Japan's. Sweden's is close to double.
Second, my grandchildren will be able to move to any country they want. If they prefer a soul-crushing job, they can easily find one.
1. https://trulysingapore.files.wordpress.com/2013/05/per-capit...
Germany needs to export more Germans :-D