Steven Levitt wrote an article 2 days ago addressing readers that are critiquing this exact argument: http://freakonomics.blogs.nytimes.com/2009/12/14/what-bother...
a) The assumption that the proportion of miles walked drunk is the same as the proportion of miles driven drunk is completely unjustified,
b) They don't distinguish between different levels of "drunk"
Whether these arguments are ignored through ignorance or deliberate disingenuousness, though, I'm not sure.