Causation without Correlation is Possible
theincidentaleconomist.com
theincidentaleconomist.com
>It is a simple matter to show that the correlation between x and y is zero. Perhaps the most intuitive way is to imagine many samples (observations) of x, y pairs. Over the sub-sample for which the pairs have the same sign (i.e. for which A happened to be +1) y=x and the correlation is 1. Over the sub-sample for which the pairs have the opposite signs (i.e. for which A happened to be -1) y=-x and the correlation is -1. Since A is +1 and -1 with equal probability, the contributions to the total correlation from the two sub-samples cancel, giving a total correlation of zero.
It seems to me that this doesn't quite make sense. Sure, the correlation of the average of the numbers is 0, but notice that |x - y| <= |2x|, or that |y| = |x|. That seems like a rather large correlation to me, even though half the time, x and y are positively correlated, and the other half, they're negatively correlated.
http://www.springerlink.com/content/l787673gxg8425g6/fulltex...
with diagrams about issues to consider in observational studies.
I always like to recommend Peter Norvig's article on interpreting research studies
http://norvig.com/experiment-design.html
and in the medical context can also recommend Harriet Hall's lecture notes
http://www.skepticstoolbox.org/hall/
as examples of popular writings on research study interpretation that give vivid examples and bring up important issues.
Causality itself is hypothetical, an artifact of perception.
The role of confounded factors came up in the examples because that is just an easy way to illustrate the points.