If Greece's creditors lent money to the country while knowing of its government's misrepresentations, then whose fault is that again?
Those misrepresentations were discovered when the Troika started to investigate Greece's financial state.
The notion that no-one knew the Greek government was lying about the state of their economy until it was too late is ludicrous on its face.
It doesn't excuse the largely international banks a la Deutsche, but it does explain the Germanic outrage.
Russia, France, Britain, and the US should have paid reparations to Germany, not the other way around.
Why? Because Germany /didn't/ start the war. It just ended up as one of the losers.
Germany had huge territorial losses after both wars, parts of Germany were under forceful occupation for a long time afterwards, and they paid heavily in terms of manufacturing equipment and money afterwards. I'd say they paid.
> Why? Because Germany /didn't/ start the war. It just ended up as one of the losers.
It also didn't blame Germany for starting the war but for the damage caused by German troops.
https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Article_231_of_the_Treaty_of_V...
It's neither Anglo-Saxon nor German. It's a creditor perspective.
The same perspective that brought us debtor's prisons, and even (in Roman times), the notion of bankruptcy meaning "selling yourself into slavery".
Also, from 2004, long before any Troka: "Greece admits fudging euro entry"
"Katinka Barysch, chief economist at the Centre for European Reform, said the announcement would not be a surprise for Brussels insiders.
"Quite a few member states did something similar because of the political imperative to join the euro as soon as possible. Greece has just gone a bit further," she said."
http://news.bbc.co.uk/2/hi/business/4012869.stm
The idea that Greece simply fooled everyone is nothing more than propaganda.