Hilbert's Grand JavaScript School (2015 Edition)
raganwald.com
raganwald.com
Similarly, an infinity to the 4th power is countable, as is an infinity to the n'th power for any finite n. Interesting question - is an infinity to an infinitieth power still countable?
However, this doesn't work for the product of A with itself countably-many times. Your induction never "reaches" infinity; it only shows that it works for any finite number n. Sure, there are infinitely-many such n, but every single natural number is finite.
0 < 1
For any natural n, if n-1 < n, then n < n+1
(proof: add 1 to both sides of the given inequality)
By induction, for all natural n, n < n+1
But clearly this does not work for infinity, because ∞-1 = ∞ = ∞+1. So induction proves something about all natural numbers, but ∞ is not a natural number.There is a thing called transfinite induction, and there you have to show the separate case that if predicate P holds for all n_i then it holds for the limit. As stated elsewhere you can't do that in this case because it's not true. 2^(oo) is uncountable.
> Am I missing something here?
Yes. You are forming perfectly reasonable conjectures based on limited experience, but those conjectures turn out to be false when you study the subject in its own right, instead of just those bits you need for the limited version of calculus that you've done. It's a problem I often have when teaching people this stuff that they have only ever dealt with "nice" functions and "easy" situations. I wrote a little about that here:http://www.solipsys.co.uk/new/PokingTheDustyCorners.html?HN_...
The countable product of even finite sets is not, in general, countable. For example, we can identify a real number with a binary sequence; in particular we can form a bijection between the set of all real numbers and a subset of the space of infinite binary sequences. If the product of the set {0,1} with itself countably-many times was countable, there would be countably-many real numbers, which we know is not true.
It shouldn't be. You can use the same principle as showing that reals aren't countable:
Suppose you have an ordered (infinite) set of the infinite-dimensional vectors. Doesn't matter the ordering.
Then construct another vector by the following: the Nth dimension of the vector is different from the Nth dimension of the Nth element of the set. Could be +1, could be -1, could be whatever, long as it's different.
Note that this doesn't actually require infinity^infinity, it's just {any set of >1 element}^infinity.
The new vector is, by definition, different from every element of the set, as the Nth dimension's value is different than the Nth element of the set's Nth value, for all N. Hence the new vector isn't in the set.
(Alternatively, you can biject {0-9}^infinity with the reals between 0 and 1. And the reals between 0 and 1 aren't countable.)
http://mitpress.mit.edu/sicp/full-text/book/book-Z-H-24.html...
3.5.2 Infinite Streams