Complications in Physics Lend Support to Multiverse Hypothesis
quantamagazine.org
quantamagazine.org
But eventually someone pointed out that before we understood the history and nature of the solar system, natural philosophers looked for similarly deep explanations for the orbits of the planets. Kepler once proposed a deep connection between the (five) gaps between the six known planets and the five platonic solids (see, e.g. http://www.pbs.org/wgbh/nova/blogs/physics/2011/12/beautiful...), and Bode's law for planetary orbits was widely accepted until Neptune was discovered in the "wrong" place in 1846 (see http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Titius%E2%80%93Bode_law).
Today, we understand that there is no reason to expect any particular pattern of planetary orbits: solar systems are a dime a dozen in the galaxy, and their details are accidents of history. So while I don't like the idea, I've gradually come to accept that the "fundamental physical constants" of our universe could conceivably turn out to be just as arbitrary as the ratio of Jupiter's major orbital axis to Saturn's.
[String phenomenology isn't really my field, but I certainly haven't had a lot of luck deriving a unique background from pure theory. I did once think that I'd found a model that predicted the cosmological constant to within an order of magnitude or two, but that obviously didn't pan out.]
[1] https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Theory_of_everything#Infinite_...
Another possible resolution is a cyclic picture (something like https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Cyclic_model), in which the cause of the cause of the cause of … may be the original event.
I can certainly see the sense in which it might be said to be, but I think that's not the sense in which the term is originally meant. I tried to come up with an explanation of why I think they were meaningfully different by an appeal to mathematical analogy, but I'm not sure that it's convincing.
Fermat argued as follows: a positive integer solution to `x^4 + y^4 = z^4` could always be converted into a smaller such solution, and you can't produce ever-smaller positive integers forever, so there weren't any such solutions in the first place. I'd say that this is clearly an infinite regress (though it was actually called infinite descent).
On the other hand, consider the problem of subtracting 1. In the system of ordinary (not-necessarily-positive) integers, this leads to a (non-paradoxical) infinite regress; whereas, in the system of integers modulo some fixed positive integer, it leads to a (non-paradoxical) circularity (where repeatedly subtracting 1 from a number will eventually yield that number itself). I think that it is reasonable to call these different phenomena.
I find myself leaning towards causation breaking down at some point. Just like our concepts of "position" and "momentum" break down at the quantum level.
There are interesting questions in many multiverse models about the history and origin of the universe, and I've seen people express concerns about the possibility of "infinite history" in much the same words you've used here. But that's a different issue than Smolin's notion of infinitely many layers of theory being needed to keep the cosmic machinery running.
Personally, I'm not overly bothered by the notion of space and time existing forever in both directions, with new bubbles of interesting reality occasionally spawning themselves from the remnants of the old ones at random after uncounted eons of darkness. I don't know why that structure might exist rather than something else (or why there is something rather than nothing), but positing a "first cause" wouldn't make me any more satisfied (and would raise additional questions). I think modern math and science are more comfortable with the possibility of infinity than folks used to be, and that our notion of a "cause" is rather different. (When I think of "causality", all I think about are light cones and Cauchy problems: http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Cauchy_problem .)
"Science is prediction, not explanation." - Fred Hoyle.
It's almost the physical equivalent of Gödel's incompleteness theorem.
Consider a finite collection of atoms consisting of a human and an environment. For simplicity, assume these atoms move classically. The human is a subsystem, and since the entire system involves deterministically, there is only a limited number of configurations that the human subsystem can realize within the environment. If a "human" is what is necessary to comprehend reality, then there are aspects of the system that cannot be realized by the subsystem, since there are far more states available to the total system.
Then again, I could just be rambling.
Think of a fractal. http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Mandelbrot_set
That's another way of saying Godel's theorems didn't end Mathematics, mathematicians just redefined what Mathematics was, presumably so they could keep their jobs.
This negation is just as hard to prove as the multiverse hypothesis.
Lack of evidence of the existence of other universes doesn't prove their non-existence, nor does it rule out their existence.
However, note that the multiverse hypothesis is simpler in its content. The statement that this universe exists, while all the other ones do not, goes one step beyond the statement that they all exist.
Is there no evidence that there are no other universes?
Mathematics shows us that there are: it shows us that entities exist which are not located anywhere in this universe.
For instance, the number pi. We accept pi as real, but where in this universe is it? It is not computable, so that even if we use all the particles in this universe as the beads of an abacus, it will not represent pi.
If this universe is all there is, then there is no pi; we must stop talking in terms such as "there exists a real number that gives the ratio of the circumference to the diameter of a circle".
(Of course, the existence of this one is shared between the multiverse hypothesis and its negation.)
* Well, various "physical" representations/encodings of this concept must exist in different people's brains.
Concepts can be reshaped. If pi is merely a concept, why can't we conceive it to be something else, like 4.0?
Pi is an idealised approximation of a certain kind of curvature in a certain kind of spacetime. Pi appears to have infinite precision only if you assume the curvature and the spacetime are perfectly smooth and have infinite resolution.
Given there's a Planck limit, it's unlikely the universe really is perfectly smooth. So Pi in the real universe is not very likely to have infinite precision.
That's where the concept of Pi as a Platonic example of mathematical perfection trips over the reality of physics as a messy thing where traditional math structures can only ever provide approximate descriptions.
Beyond a certain level of detail Other Stuff is happening, and you can't assume smoothness or infinite precision.
We don't know a whole lot about the Other Stuff yet. One reason is that math was built to work with smooth functions with infinite precision, and there's no equivalent math that describes the lumps of whatever spacetime is made of, or the relationships between the lumps.
pi doesn't help you find the distance around a circle in some curved space-time, but pi is what it is.
I think that the hypothesis will be quasi-proven when science hits the ultimate limit beyond which there is no explanation. This will show that the world just proceeds by arbitrary rules that are traceable to axioms. Once you have that, you have shown that it's indistinguishable from any other such a formal system. That is to say, that it exists in the same way: the world is no more or less real than, say, the plane of the complex numbers. After that, although you still don't have empirical evidence of other worlds, there is no short supply of imaginable worlds (such as in mathematics) which are just as real.
In other words, once it becomes obvious that the world is just "math all the way down", it will be as foolish to deny other existences as to deny the square root of -1.
Only true if the box is not everything.
I can find nothing unnatural about the existence of a single universe with particular constants that give rise to life that then studies the universe. There is nothing in this that leads inevitably to the conclusion someone has been rolling the dice many times until this came about.
I think it is way to early to call universe unnatural. Sure there is a chance that it might be true, but we are not going to find out until we have way more data. For one there is so much in cosmology that we cannot explain yet, such as dark matter and accelerating expansion.
[1] Last 250 years or so.
[2] Gravity, magnetic field, stable trajectory around the sun (sun's gravity is more or less unchanging)... I do know there are variations and experiments in microgravity, but all high-energy particle acceleration experiments had been done in relatively same conditions.
But, you're right about scientists assuming a lot about the universe. In cosmology, this is known as the Cosmological Principle[0], which is expressed in the language of the field as homogeneity of the matter distribution of the universe. Implicit hypotheses with this is that fundamental constants are constant and the laws of physics are the same. The basic idea is the assumption that the Earth is not special, therefore, experiments done here, while accounting for particular effects like earth's gravity, being a non-inertial frame, etc., would be representative of any point other point of space.
And it's not that this is a bad assumption. For example, spectra analysis of elements on earth has given us good ways to figure out the elements of stars far out of reach, and it is one hell of a coincidence that the spectra we see in stars is so similar to elements here like hydrogen and helium that one can't assume that earth was just gifted with these elements while other parts weren't. This is just one example of the success of this assumption.
I often get discouraged thinking about this. Our entire body of scientific knowledge consists of inferences drawn from human observation, but our sensory apparatus is only sensitive to a few different things/processes. And the mental processes we apply to our observations evolved to simply help us survive our physical environment. We could be fatally under-equipped to ever come close to "understanding" the universe, right?
Also, I'm WAY out of my depth here, but is it at least possible to imagine a system where there are multiple sets of elementary particles, with each set not interacting with the rest? I'm imagining an arbitrary number of sets of particles that are each identical in function to the particles comprising our physical world, but the states of the particles in Set 1 have no effect on the states of the particles in Set 2, and so on. The result could be many intertwined or overlaid physical universes, all occupying the same "space." Could something like this ever be disproved?
Otherwise: https://www.google.com/?q=site:motls.blogspot.com+naturalnes...
Whereas a multiverse is a much higher prior probability. In fact believing we are the only universe is just as untestable a hypothesis, and even more silly.
We can demonstrate, our universe exists. Claims about the number of universes (>= 1) are untestable (for now) and should therefore be considered speculation.
Maybe you mean (number of universes > 1)?
Also, many universes probably have a being which serves, essentially, as a god: that is, these worlds are partitioned into an intelligent part, and a remainder which the intelligent part created and controls.
(Not this one, though, as far as anyone credible has been able to tell.)
The idea that our universe is the only universe is just as crazy to me as saying unicorns exist. The laws of physics are incredibly arbitrary, and the probability of a random set of laws of physics supporting intelligent life is ridiculously small.
More formally, via Solomonoff induction, the hypothesis of multiple universes should be more likely by several orders of magnitude, since it can necessarily be expressed with fewer bits of complexity. E.g. "all computable programs" vs "one specific program", or "all possible laws of physics", vs "one very specific set of laws of physics."
http://phys.org/news/2014-10-interacting-worlds-theory-scien...
Even if you find that you're in a very special universe, you need an explanation of why it is that way. The multiverse hypothesis helps, by giving a plausible answer which avoids belief in gods.
But as long as there is no proof of the existence of these multiple universes it's still magical thinking.
On the basis of data? No. (If you think otherwise, show us the data.)
On the basis of philosophical prejudice? Yes, I think that's the reason.
But if you say that, given no evidence for God, one should be an atheist, then given no evidence for multiple universes...
Even the hypothesis that this is the only universe requires hidden variables (to explain what snuffs out the other universes, setting up this one as the one and only).
Even more, why do you say "to explain what snuffs out the other universes"? That means you're already assuming that there are (or were or should be) other universes. What is your basis for assuming that?
It would be surprising if suddenly the integers stopped at a particular value. Such an extraordinary situation would require an extraordinary explanation.
Any set of rules you can imagine gives you a universe. If you say that there is only this universe and nothing else, then you're denying the existence of things like the complex plane.
Or else you're asserting that the physical world exists in a different sense.
But so far, all evidence points toward the world being nothing but math.
Not a single discovery in physics has ever been anything other than math: a mathematical relationship (equations) or a quantity (constant).
Maybe that's just a "streak" of a particular kind of luck: maybe the next discovery will be of something non-mathematical. I'm betting on it being "math all the way down".
That's like saying that any supernatural being you can imagine gives you a god. Reality is not the consequence of math and it is absurd to believe that things exist just because you had some results from an equation.
Okay, so then: what has advancement in physics ever given us, other than yet another equation or a numeric constant?
Emotionally "need", perhaps. Scientifically, not really.
> The multiverse hypothesis helps, by giving a plausible answer which avoids belief in gods.
The multiverse conjecture is -- by your own description -- not a hypothesis in the scientific sense, because, as you say, it cannot be falsified empirically. Like any belief in God that is compatible with science, its simply -- from a scientific perspective -- superfluous. It has no advantage, except the emotional advantage it provides to someone with an emotional bias to (1) have an explanation even if it is untestable, and (2) to avoid that explanation relying on belief in God.
somewhat reminds about what physics must have been before Newton's laws - the cannon ball flies this strange seemingly unnatural trajectory what it would sound reasonable to suppose that "enormous number of universes must exist for our improbable case to have been realized." Though they were lucky back then to have God's will as an easy always available tool for explanation. We're not that lucky today. We have to continue digging :)