How did that happen, exactly?
How did that happen, exactly?
> A lodging industry trade association petitioned the FCC last month for the ruling on blocking personal Wi-Fi signals.
> The petition stems from Marriott International’s agreement last month to settle an FCC investigation into a complaint that at least one of its hotels used communications-jamming technology to disable the personal Wi-Fi hotspots that many travelers tote with them.
Firstly, the ban on Wi-Fi jammers is an FCC rule, not a law.
So Marriott settled according to current rules. The hotel lobby then petitioned FCC to authorize them, and change the rules if necessary, to jam Wi-Fi. Google and Microsoft filed letters opposing this petition.
"15. Can I operate a jammer in the U.S.? No. It is a violation of federal law to operate jammers in the United States, except for authorized, official use by the U.S. government."
One way to get bitten by this is by working for the government. You might think you have a contract, and that for instance your pension is set in stone by the paper you signed. That would be a wrong impression, as that paper you signed is (usually) not in fact a contract, merely an acknowledgement of the regulation (the text will, of course, state that this is so), and that regulation, unlike contracts, can be changed without your approval.
It seems to me that the GP is attempting to technically point out that the most narrow definition of law only applies to what both houses decide and the president signs. That's not true in any meaningful sense.
http://www.law.cornell.edu/uscode/text/47/333
This is law passed by congress.