Can someone who is a little more into Lord of the Rings comment on this? This guy didn't really get a lawsuit dropped by claiming that Tolkeins books were actually written 5000 years ago did he?
Or is there something here whooshing over my head?
Or is there something here whooshing over my head?
In a world where the Red Book of Westmarch actually existed, this other translation would be legal.
Edit: this is a work of fiction 'blog post' in a pretty fictional-oriented 'blog'