The Saddest Thing I Know about the Integers
blogs.scientificamerican.com
blogs.scientificamerican.com
As this article points out, it's mathematically impossible to perfectly tune some of these intervals, but depending on the relationships between the notes being sung, you can tune to one singer or the other. It takes a lot of practice and a good ear, but the resulting effect is pretty darned cool.
I'd love to hear some examples of a barbershop n-tet doing it too, I'm sure it's even better. But when I search for 'barbershop overtones' it's all music by groups called The Overtones :)
Here's a fairly technical article about three different seventh chords, one (the harmonic seventh) being the so-called barbershop seventh chord. There are embedded YouTube videos with computer-generated audio samples. http://www.garygarrett.me/?p=1575
Listen for when the director sings the overtone note alone, then listen to the chorus as they produce it.
The principle is actually the same -- she is modifying her singing apparatus to emphasize different upper partials that are already in her voice. Barbershoppers do this as well, though less explicitly (we do vowel matching, which helps emphasize upper partials to produce greater ring).
Here's a video from a perennial favorite quartet (the Gas House Gang): https://www.youtube.com/watch?v=pvYT_yWiLqU The top/tenor note is often the same note as the primary overtone produced by the other 3 parts (adding further emphasis to the overtone), but this effect is what gives barbershop the quality of sounding like more than 4 voices, and produces the "ring" in the sound.
Lest anyone think that barbershop is just for old folks: https://www.youtube.com/watch?v=XWmFfFx24zs (Vocal Spectrum, 2004 international collegiate quartet champions and 2006 international quartet champions)
Or just for Americans: https://www.youtube.com/watch?v=rFWhnOP_UVk (Ringmasters, 2012 international quartet champions, from Sweden) https://www.youtube.com/watch?v=T6HM-oLG_cI (Musical Island Boys, 2014 international quartet champions, from New Zealand)
Or always serious: https://www.youtube.com/watch?v=ihdtI0E_mmQ (Storm Front, 2010 International Quartet Champions and comedy quartet)
Or just for men: https://www.youtube.com/watch?v=tWqtFxW4kiE (LoveNotes, 2014 Sweet Adelines International Quartet Champions)
Or just for adults: https://www.youtube.com/watch?v=sREQu_AaUso (The Osmond Brothers... yup ;))
I also did a bit of barbershop (we called ourselves The Overhead Projectors...) and playing with throat-singing was actually quite useful in that context. I'm not sure how much it affect my actual voice control (probably some), but mostly I just became keenly aware of how much tone could vary just based on little changes in positioning of mouth, throat, tongue, palate, etc..
I don't mean to be skeptical in a negative way. It would be great if music has a built-in payoff for singing with just intonation.
I've recently heard some doubt, however, about whether this overtone effect is actually perceptible to listeners, in a way that would pass double-blind tests and stuff. It's not that the alternative is that barbershop singers are delusional or something: the alternative is that barbershop singers -- and some listeners -- have well-trained ears for just intonation, and the perception of the chord they're singing changes inside their brain when the intervals line up.
I don't doubt the power of overtones lining up. This effect is where the entire musical scale comes from, after all. But does the barbershop effect actually physically come from constructive interference (this would limit it to a small number of chords made of undertones, incidentally), or is it just a noticeable auditory illusion that occurs in trained ears?
A sonogram like the one in this app will confirm that the effect is physical and not just an illusion: https://play.google.com/store/apps/details?id=com.ntrack.tun...
What should I be listening for in the video? There's the moment at 0:45 when everyone stops and says "wow", but that could come from either explanation.
Should I be expecting to hear a pitch that's higher than all the notes in the chord, lower than all the notes in the chord, or a different phenomenon that's not a distinct pitch?
This effect is sometimes claimed to happen with a 4:5:6:7 dominant 7th chord. In that case, would I hear it at the 28th harmonic? The 30th? The 420th (which is the lowest overtone that all the notes have in common)? The 1st (the undertone they have in common)? Or is 4:5:6:7 actually a bad example?
(I really doubt it's the 420th, of course. That would be a very high pitch around 17 KHz, which would be difficult to hear, and wouldn't be preserved at YouTube quality anyway.)
What do you suggest? We could invent new words - great, instead of an octave we now have a zargablub. Not terribly helpful.
Or we could give concepts more explicit names - instead of octave, we now have interval-between-two-pitches-with-logarithm-base-two. But all the experts will soon abbreviate this to something else, and soon enough we'll have the same problem we started with.
Or we could try to find a modern word that explains the concept better than the legacy one, but that means that all material from before the change is going to become very hard to understand unless you know all synonyms for a given concept. And since language is always evolving, in 50 years people will complain that your once modern and easy to understand word is now obscure terminology.
Really, what do you suggest? Jargon is hard for the newcomers, but there's a reason it exists- it enables experts to communicate clearly and non ambiguously about specific concepts and ideas. It's infinitely better for things to be hard to get acquainted with in the first 6 months, and then you get to used it, than to have a field where no progress is made because no one can communicate.
It's kind of like software, actually - these days, it's all about ease of use and being able to pick up an application and use it in 5 seconds flat without having to read a manual. Which is fine if your software is Snapchat or Instagram, but terrible if you're building a synthesizer or video editor or statistics package. In some cases, it is worth having something that's hard to learn but is very powerful once you've gotten past the initial hurdle, because while you will only be a beginner for a short while, once you are past that you will be an expert for the rest of your life. (these ideas are developed in Jef Raskin's The Humane Interface)
So there is a certain usefulness to it, and I comfort myself by knowing that our words are mostly all arbitrary anyway.
Also, it's totally fair to raise an issue without having a solution or suggestion. And the lack of one doesn't make the issue less valid.
And "zargablub"? Straw-man territory...
Sure it's fair, but is it helpful? I guess in some way it is helpful to raise awareness of the issue but then what? We all stand around with our hands in our pockets, whistling away.
Organic is usually better than "master planned". Evolution et al...
I'll be your first, then. Agreed.
> ... I believe they developed their overall understanding almost independent of the terminology, ....
That certainly happened here. E.g., that (say) 2^(4/12) is pretty close to 5/4 is an interesting fact that requires no knowledge of music terminology to grasp. That we call a pair of notes whose frequencies are roughly in this ratio a "major third" is just trivia to memorize.
For musicians, this is actually precisely opposite. Performing and composing musicians absolutely never use the ratio of fundamental frequencies. They constantly use thirds and think of them as the third note in the major scale, which is the most common scale.
It sounds mathematical in some ways (there are certainly numbers in there); but when you look closer it's inconsistent and/or just plain weird.
When you start writing code working with scales, intervals, triads, seventh chords, etc., the oddities really become obvious. The base unit of movement is the half-step; but the full-step is almost a useless concept -- a major scale is a seemingly random pattern of half and whole steps, major and minor intervals included in it. Whole notes refer to note duration. A whole tone scale is about the intervals between pitches. Looping the pitches from G back to A, but most starting counting at the C (for the simplest major scale).
There are historical reasons for the oddities; but it wouldn't be too hard to come up with better... it's much like language that way, though. Think of all of the inconsistencies in English -- yes, we'd be better off in many ways if we could just fix all of the broken bits (e.g.: the past tense of "lead" is "led", but the past tense of "read" is written "read"... but pronounced "red"). But we can't -- because everyone's using the broken version, there is a huge corpus of knowledge written in the broken version, etc. etc..
I read about a thing called hummingbird notation - uses the same clefs, but changes noteheads, staffs and sharps/flats. Your opinion may differ, but here is a group of folks who spent a lot of time coming up with a "system" and it does not strike me as an improvement.
Have there been other attempts?
I have fewer problems with notation than with theory terminology & concepts, personally.
There are alternatives that get a lot of use -- esp. TAB and various types of chord charts; but they're not as general purpose as standard notation.
In addition to the amount of existing literature, there's also the matter of developing the skill to read it. I'm tethered to "standard" notation because I developed fluent sight-reading ability as a kid, and I continue to practice it. I daresay that learning a new notation system would be virtually prohibitive at my age.
Every town has a cadre of musicians with similar skills, which in turn creates an incentive for composers and arrangers to continue using standard notation. And some notations are considered to be useful for one thing but not another. For instance, tabulature is used for teaching the electric bass, and documenting transcribed bass lines, but nobody can sight-read tab well enough for it to be an alternative to standard notation for performance use.
I actually had such an experience not too long ago. I play mostly jazz, which has its own notational traditions. But a bandleader hired me, who had her repertoire written out using the Nashville Number System. Though her charts were simple, my brain had to work in overdrive for that entire gig.
It's pretty much what you'd expect, zero-based integers that represent semitone intervals. Sometimes they write chords in curly brackets, like {0,3,7} for the major triad.
Integer Notation also happens to be pretty much equivalent to the 0-127 based MIDI notes--in the sense that it's also zero-based integers representing semitones.
https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Integer_notation actually redirects you to "Pitch Class". Also very useful and mathematically sound, it's the same idea but with modulo-12 arithmetic.
Personally, I find most music terminology to be fairly decent, but I grew up with it, so perhaps I'm the type of person you describe. There is some ambiguity in terminology, some of which is inherent in the dual usage of certain harmonies (is it an A minor 7th flat 5, or a C minor 6th?), and some of which is simply the historical result of competing notations (is it a diminished 7th or a minor 7th flat 5?). However, I think most of the terminology is at least somewhat self-hinting, and the weird random names are few enough to be memorized or looked up when needed (like all the Italian words to notate dynamics and tempo). It certainly doesn't seem particularly worse than the terminology used in, say, computer science or computer programming.
There's also a concept known as inverted intervals, which are formed by moving downwards instead of upwards. The inverse of a major third is a minor sixth, because that's the interval you get (modulo octaves) by moving down a major third from your root note. The inversion n is given by 9-n. With zero-indexing, inversions would be given by simple modulo seven arithmetic.
How would that be better?
>The inversion n is given by 9-n. With zero-indexing, inversions would be given by simple modulo seven arithmetic.
Again, how module arithmetic is simpler than a simple deduction from 9?
It would be better because a fifteenth is a double octave, but eight times two is not fifteenth.
> Again, how module arithmetic is simpler than a simple deduction from 9?
Because you'd be able to base both concepts on octaves (well, renamed to sevenths) being seven steps on the scale.
How undiscoverable? I grew up in a fairly music-oriented family and played a lot of instruments as a kid, but didn't formally study music theory. It wasn't until I read parent that I realized "fifth", "third", etc. are 1-indexed ordinals, and not some inscrutable scheme involving fractions. Everything suddenly makes way more sense.
I feel fairly confident that sane terminology would greatly ease this problem.
I don't doubt that it could be improved, but I don't think it's all that bad, considering how many people do learn music theory.
Maybe not for you, but it certainly took me a moment to convince myself that that is true.
Anyway, yes, you've shown correctly that mod 7 arithmetic is useful, proving half the great-great-somethingth-parent's point. Now, the remaining interesting cases are the inversion case and the multiplication case, where 0 based is simpler (for me) than 1 based.
Also, the idea of using the word "octave" for "mod 7" is already pretty broken, and is what caused me my initial hesitation.
Coming from a family of musicians and artists, it's all pretty foreign to me. And I used to take lessons, and occasionally sit and work my way through a beginner guitar book. I've always heard music theory to be pretty obtuse and challenging. I'm sure if I put in some hours to understand the fundamentals it'd make a lot more sense, and read it at home with a little dedication it'd be a bit easier. It's truly interesting.
[0] - https://www.youtube.com/watch?v=pF8oIKLlBsI#t=132 [1] - http://www.imdb.com/title/tt0115819/?ref_=fn_al_tt_1
A Major 10th mod-7 is a Major 3rd regardless of zero or one-based indexing, the only difference is which notes in the current key you're actually talking about (in the key of C it would be E or D for one-based and zero-based indexing respectively)
I don't know that it's any easier to remember "the tonic is 0" than it is to remember "the tonic is 1"
If you are concerned about that, then wouldn't calling an octave "a seventh" (your proposed fix) be equally concerning? Eight (octave) is not seven.
The fact that this interval of seven notes is called an "octave", named after the number 8, is entirely because of our 1-based system that double-counts the note you start on.
If we had a 0-based system, it wouldn't be called an "octave". It would be named after the number 7. Let's call it a 7-interval, to avoid confusion with actual music terms.
In a 0-based system, you could say, for example, that two 2-intervals make a 4-interval because 2 * 2 = 4.
In the 1-based system we really have, you have to say "two thirds make a fifth", and the mathematical connection is not obvious.
Not really. At least in Europe, and at least for the last couple of centuries, musicians learned and developed their understanding of music through studying its formal theory and terminology.
The only exception was autodidacts, which through common in folk music traditions, was not common in urban environments in Europe for classical or contemporary popular music.
The other reality is that we tend to teach theory from a perspective that explains simple music and progresses to the more complex, and then chronologically. This may be helpful for practicing musicians, but it does little to explain how the fundamental tonal concepts for together (scale structure, harmonic progression/voice leading, timbre, and tuning).
I'm intrigued, got any more info or links on what sort of big steps have been made in the past decade?
Curiously, major 3rds did not bother him, even though they have the same ratio problems.
Anecdotally, when I was taking lessons with my old cello teacher (who has perfect pitch), if he and I played a note on an open string simultaneously, I could always tell if we were in relative tune by the way the notes interfered. I don't think I'm particularly special in that regard.
Edit: Also, once I have one string tuned, I can tell if a neighboring string is correctly tuned because neighboring strings differ by fifths. Again, I don't think I'm particularly special; it's just a matter of learning what to listen for.
I play pedal steel, and string 6/G# drops a whacking 10 ten cents when press my A pedal and boy howdy can I hear it - and I don't have perfect pitch, just reasonably good relative pitch.
It might be worth joining the (web-based) Steel Guitar Forum. Membership is $5.00 per year. There may also be a local steel guitar association. If you play another instrument, you may be able to volunteer to sit in backing other players at meetings. Also, find The Guy in the area who does steel guitar repair.
Good luck in your search!
If it is any consolation to your williamcotton, I'm also having trouble finding a band, but I haven't been at it so long so I usually end up playing bass....
The main scenes tend to be related to the Grateful Dead and other jam bands. There's been a big rise in bluegrass and country inspired jam bands as of late although they're mostly living in the foothills or Tahoe.
Sweetwater in Mill Valley, Terrapin Crossroads in San Rafael, and Ashkenaz in Berkeley have a healthy amount of traditional American string players but I'm telling you, almost no one plays pedal steel. There's a few guys like Dan Lebowitz who are just phenomenal but they've all got their plates full.
San Francisco's got Amnesia and Veracocha and a few other smaller venues but I'd gotta say that Phil Lesh's Terrapin Crossroads is what the scene revolves around in the Bay Area.
I have no problem finding fiddle, banjo, or mandolin players! Just pedal steel!
http://www.wolframalpha.com/input/?i=sin%28x%29+%2B+sin%28x+...
And an out of tune one has very audible dips and troughs in intensity:
http://www.wolframalpha.com/input/?i=sin%28x%29+%2B+sin%28x+...
There's a degree to which it doesn't matter (either it's below what we're sensitive to or it's drowned out by overtones) but the beating sound is very audible.
You also get a similar impact from overtones.
So what happens is at a certain point is that you might not perceive the pitch difference, but you can detect a change in the timbre of sound (quality, tone, resonance).
One of the lessons I learned was that it's better to be relatively in tune than absolutely in tune (i.e. tune to the soloist no matter what), and it's moderately better to be sharp than flat if you're going to be out of tune.
tune to the soloist no matter what
Not necessarily. Some soloists (particularly violinists) deliberately tune slightly sharper than the orchestra they're playing with, because the difference in tone allows them to cut through more easily.
Also, apparently pitch used to vary quite a lot during the baroque period. I've even heard claims of pitch varying by as much as a minor third, though that seems rather extreme: http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Historically_informed_performan...
I doubt she'd notice if a piano was tuned to 442 vs. 440, though... which makes some sense, really; a violinist really benefits from a sharp ear for pitch, for accurate finger placement (no frets or anything like that on a violin neck) -- but a pianist has a fixed set of keys to choose from.
However, the answer is more complicated than that. Quoting directly from my acoustics textbook:
"Research on the intervals played or sung by skilled musicians shows substantial variability in the intonation from performance to performance. These variations are frequently larger than the differences between the various tunings. Studies of large numbers of performances have shown that deviations from equal temperament are usually in the direction of Pythagorean intervals (Ward 1970).
"Several investigators have found that performers tend to stretch their intervals (including octaves), even when unaccompanied by a piano. Many choral conductors prefer the third in a chord slightly raised, especially in sustained chords or cadences, to avoid any suggestion of 'flatting' the chord, a particular nemesis of choirs. How much of the apparent preference for sharpened intervals is due to constant exposure to pianos with stretched turning is difficult to determine."
The Science of Sound, Third Edition, by Rossing, Moore, and Wheeler, p. 187.
(Ward 1970) is "Musical Perception" by W.D. Ward, in Foundations of Modern Auditory Theory, Ed. J. Tobias.
Johan Sundberg has excellent examples of this "stretched" tuning in some of his talks. He claims that musicians stretch intervals intentionally in order to add excitement to particular passages. The link below contrasts equally tempered and "stretched" versions of the same musical phrases.
http://www.youtube.com/watch?v=CxFVjKMsaTc&t=50m32s
To my ears the stretched versions are far more engaging, especially the example with the tenor Jussi Bjorling around 52:50.
(http://www.violinmasterclass.com/en/masterclasses/intonation)
Perfect (absolute) pitch can sometimes be a blessing, sometimes a curse. I don't have it, but my partner did, and she struggled to enjoy some concerts that I enjoyed, simply because the notes from the various players weren't aligned well enough...
Hmm, it depends from listener to listener. Obviously I can't comment for your partner, but I too have perfect pitch. Bad alignment of players isn't really a problem for me unless the players are dramatically out of tune. I'm not the greatest at determining tunings by ear either, as this kind of thing varies.
Sorry I'm relatively ignorant when it comes to these topics; what does this mean? What are you able to do, upon listening to a particular musical performance?
Most people have no (or very little) sense of absolute pitch - if you get asked to sing / hum / whistle a song, you'll start on any random old note. You'll get the relative pitches right - the change in pitch between notes - but not the absolute.
(To be pedantic, you'll get the ratio of the frequencies approximately right)
Someone with perfect pitch can identify "that note is the A# below middle C", for instance. But not necessarily that accurately. " not the greatest at determining tunings by ear " just means that he's not very good at it. So he may identify that A# as a C or something.
Studies have shown that there is a higher prevalence of people with perfect pitch in countries where tonal languages--languages in which the same series of sounds made with distinct voice pitches can denote entirely different words.
However, the percentage of people with perfect pitch remains tiny, which is not what I would expect if it was due to training alone. It seems like it might be helpful enough for musicians that we'd have turned it into a method by now if training alone reliably produced good results.
From http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Absolute_pitch "[...] there are no reported cases of an adult obtaining absolute pitch ability through musical training; adults who possess relative pitch, but who do not already have absolute pitch, can learn "pseudo-absolute pitch", and become able to identify notes in a way that superficially resembles absolute pitch. Moreover, training pseudo-absolute pitch requires considerable motivation, time, and effort, and learning is not retained without constant practice and reinforcement."
But it's honestly not that valuable a skill, even for professional musicians. Having really keen relative pitch (and avoiding slipping pitch if you're singing, for example) would be a much better focus to take.
I believe most (if not all) natural tonal languages use relative pitch, not absolute, so you wouldn't need perfect pitch to understand them.
I did turn up that a much larger percentage of people have perfect pitch in populations that speak tonal languages.
Google "Lissajous Pattern" and the like. Youtubes and images and wikipedia articles.
This is NOT what your eardrum looks like when you hear notes in tune, but it does provide a certain visual simulation of why simple integer-ish ratios sound better than random ratios.
And that's not accounting for the tuning peculiarities that every instrument has. A lot of older, perfectly playable pianos were always tuned below A=440 and can't be brought up now. When i started playing woodwinds, my band teacher specifically told me not to tune against piano in higher registers, which would have made the flute sharp, which is exactly what you don't want.
This thread did remind me to try Werkmeister and Kimberger tunings on my digital piano, p 41: http://download.yamaha.com/api/asset/file/?language=no&site=...
I shd practice viola, also
Ten cents is a big difference, at least to me, but I'm somewhat trained.
For instance if you play 1000 Hz against 1001 Hz (0.1% error), you will hear a 1 Hz beat. 100 Hz against 101 Hz also produces a 1 Hz beat, but the error is a lot greater at 1%.
Musics of the world uses different afination schemes, and thus different ratios than western musc.
As a jazz enthusiast I hear consonance in pieces that most people catalog as noise. (Abert Ayler comes to my mind).
My point is that, while there is an underlaying physics explanation for sound and harmony, the ultimate "perception of sound", specially music, is a human trait, where emotion and culture play a much more relevant role than the precision of any ratio between sounds.
http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Harmony (Historial rules, and Perception of Harmony sections are both relevant)
Here's equal: http://vocaroo.com/i/s1a539BsTA8F
Here's just: http://vocaroo.com/i/s1bLClEDtLsO
The most apparent difference is the wobbliness in the first one.
(try opening both at the same time!)
EDIT: I mixed them up previously, now correct.
Great example, though - and playing them both at once is an interesting exercise in aliasing.
A 55.00 55.00 55.00
E 82.50 82.41 110.00
B 123.75 123.47 220.00
F# 185.63 185.00 440.00
C# 278.44 277.18 880.00
G# 417.66 415.30 1,760.00
D# 626.48 622.25 3,520.00
A# 939.73 932.33 7,040.00
F 1,409.59 1,396.91
C 2,114.38 2,093.00
G 3,171.58 3,135.96
D 4,757.37 4,698.63
A 7,136.05 7,040.00
Starting with A1 (55Hz) the first column of numbers is simply multiplied by 1.5 12 times through the circle of fifths to get to an alleged A8. The last column I simply multiplied 55Hz by 2 7 times to get to the A8 to see the discrepancy.The middle column of numbers I used to tweak the ratio for perfect fifths. I had to use 1.498307 to get the A8s to match up.
Assuming an algorithm could be worked out, would it end up sounding worse due to notes shifting around ever so slightly to make all the ratios work?
* Edited.
Anyway, there's fundamental issues this approach can never solve. An E and G should NEVER EVER be 5/4. That would be E and G-SHARP (or E-flat and G). But this is a good example of the issue. E and G could be 6/5 or 7/6 or 19/16 or… (the first two make the most sense). So, how is the keyboard to know when I play E and G that I wanted it to be part of a C-major 4:5:6 chord versus part of an A7 4:5:6:7 chord? There's no way other than some input that can tell me or the thing adapting after-the-fact when I later add the rest of the chord.
I think the best overall tuning software for keyboards is http://www.tallkite.com/alt-tuner.html by the way, although adaptive stuff isn't the focus.
There's many others though. Cheers
It’s a really unusual experience using it, because the never-quite-tuned sound is part of a piano’s character. With Hermode tuning engaged, every chord has a ringing pure bell-like quality, especially with 7th/diminished chords (which sound immensely satisfying).
Since few instruments in the real world can tune so precisely, Logic amusingly has a slider to make the Hermode tuning “less perfect” if desired.
There's great opportunity for microtonal tunings without the dissonance often associated with microtonal music. And as others have already pointed out, traditional techniques already do this (eg. stretch tuning). The theory explains why it works, and how to expand it to arbitrary timbres, including those possible only with synthesizers. I'd love to see more musicians experimenting with it. There's a whole lot of unexplored musical novelty out there.
Speaking of which, another theorist, Dmitry Tymoczko, has some fascinating theories on harmony that you might like in his book A Geometry of Music. A few years ago, when I was reading his and Sethares's work, I really felt like their ideas put together would make a fascinating grand theory of tonal music.
This is false, and in fact pianos are tuned in imperfect octaves. The reason is that due to nonlinearity, the harmonics of a vibrating string are not perfect multiples. They are sharp! And that actually contributes to the character (timbre) of the note.
When a piano is tuned, typically the middle range is set according to an electronic source (nowadays). The higher keys are tuned against the harmonics of their previously tuned lower octave counterparts. This means that those notes are slightly sharp. Likewise, notes in the lower register are a bit flat.
Thought experiment: Suppose someone with perfect pitch were to sing out all the notes on a scale which they feel sounds perfect, while someone else would measure the frequencies of each note they sing. Obviously, the result would not show a counter example to the fundamental theorem of arithmetic, but I'd be curious to know what it would show...
And the point in the article that temperment cannot be heard is sort of wrong anyway. You can write some quick code to generate both chords, and the difference is notable. Perfect tuning is something we actually hear regularly in things like tight vocal harmony. It's not alien.
import itertools, math
def rationalizations(x):
ix = int(x)
yield ix, 1
if x != ix:
for numer, denom in rationalizations(1.0/(x-ix)):
yield denom + ix * numer, numer
for frac in itertools.islice(rationalizations(math.log(3, 2)), 10):
print '%d/%d' % frac,
produces 1/1 2/1 3/2 8/5 19/12 65/41 84/53 485/306 1054/665 24727/15601
I guess 8/5 is for the pentatonic scale? Then after 12 tones the next good approximation has 41 and we've run out of the alphabet.(The 41-note scale doesn't accomplish much, it turns out.)
The 53-note scale was supposedly discovered by Ching Fang (the same guy who discovered that the moon reflected sunlight) in the first century BC.
The equivalent of fifths in the 53-note equal-tempered scale are an unreasonably good approximation to just intonation, kind of like 355/113 is an unreasonably good approximation to pi. It also happens to contain good approximations to all kinds of other just intervals. And because 53 is prime, you don't just have a circle of fifths, you have a circle of any interval you want.
So you can use this scale as a reference point to compare different tunings, scales of world music, and scales invented by avant-garde composers. Or you can use it as a cool thing to play with.
(It did occur to me you could almost label them with letters of the alphabet, with one left over: 53=26x2+1. But that'd be silly and invite confusion with the 12-tone note names.)
Heh. But seriously, folks...
Like the moon that eclipses the sun, revealing solar flares, this mechanism helps hearing what's hiding behind the main notes hit.
Skip to 3'58'' to hear only harmonics sounding after dampening manually a C3.
Skip to 7'17'' for a demonstration of the sympathetic sounds.
here's a link to the print version, the floating 20% off horror for black friday and cyber monday are gone, thank god.
Is this problem then because we start with integer ratios? Is this problem solvable if we started a "true(?)" irrational ratio?
You can try by putting 250 and 510 into the boxes here: http://onlinetonegenerator.com/binauralbeats.html
and revert to a nice-sounding octave with 250 and 500.
In the perfect world you have e.g.:
+ C major scale: C D E F G A B C, where frequencies of all notes depend on frequency of note C (like, “fifth” from C is G and it's exactly 3/2 of C)
+ and D major: D E* F♯* G* A* B* C♯* … D (and depend likewise). But now G is not necessary equal to G*, but they are close. So here comes the idea of equal temperament where octaves are strictly 2:1 as they suppose to be, but all notes between are equally scattered (on log scale) in between.
So TL;DR: nowadays it's all approximation. You can do it perfectly, but only for one root.
This frequency relationship is approximately true for many, but not all, acoustic instruments.
http://sethares.engr.wisc.edu/html/soundexamples.html
The mp3 at the above website called "Challenging the octave" gives an example of a bell that sounds more in tune when the "octave" is a frequency ratio of 2.1 vs the usual 2.
If you have any interest in music theory, even if you've already studied traditional western music theory, read Dr. Sethares' work on the subject: http://sethares.engr.wisc.edu/ttss.html (He was mentioned elsewhere in the comments, but he's too awesome to risk missing.)
But they're not...
I am also puzzled about the alleged connection to UFDs.
I agree that it's rather odd to start discussing UFDs in general, Gaussian integers, etc., just for this incommensurability result, but since unique prime factorization is the key to the whole thing, it's not entirely out of left field.
(I'm also not accustomed to considering the ring of integers modulo 7 a UFD, insofar as exponents in prime factorizations are never unique as integers in this context (only as integers modulo 6), but that's just a minor difference in the way we apparently use terminology)
Ok, this seems like kind of a contrived condition though, compared to, say, the condition that 2, 3, and 5 are prime (which also suffices).
Something that occurred to me after I made my last post (and possibly what you meant in the second paragraph?): perhaps the author didn't mean to imply that the UFD property is useful for characterizing when you have incommensurability in different rings, but rather that it's relevant because it's used as a step in the proof that these ratios are incommensurable in the case of Z. This makes sense to me but in my opinion it wouldn't hurt if the article were more explicit on this point.
I'm not familiar with a commonly-used definition of UFD for which the ring of integers mod 7 is not a UFD. Could you please point me to a reference that contains this alternate definition of UFD you are referring to? The definition I am using is the one in Abstract Algebra by Dummit & Foote, which happens to agree with the definition on wikipedia at the time of this posting.
Re: the integers mod 7, I had a brainfart; of course the integers mod 7 are a UFD, but trivially so, as they are a field. My apologies!
Ok, but the UFD criterion is redundant here because there are no non-fields for which every nonzero element is a power of a fixed nonzero nonunit element. So that doesn't make UFDs any more relevant than any other extra criterion you could add.
In particular, let F be any field, and consider F[[x]], the ring of formal power series[1] over F. Given any nonzero f(x) in F[[x]], we can "factor out as many x's as we can" to write f(x) = x^n g(x) where n is a nonnegative integer, g(x) is in F[[x]], and the constant term of g(x) is nonzero (here we explicitly define x^0 to be 1). Thus, g(x) is a unit[2] (ie invertible), and every nonzero element of F[[x]] is a unit multiple of a power of x.
[1]: http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Formal_power_series
[2]: http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Formal_power_series#Inverting_s...
So what you've said boils down to:
"The only UFDs that are discrete valuation rings are discrete valuation rings", which again doesn't make UFDs more relevant than any other condition you might add.
So my final statement should read: "...which again doesn't make UFDs more relevant than any other condition you might add _that is stronger than the much more general condition of being an integral domain_"
There are enough qualifiers here to go quite a bit further: Not only are there no non-fields of this sort, but, in fact, there are no rings of this sort whatsoever: if x is our fixed nonzero, nonunit element, we must have x + 1 as some power of x (x + 1 being nonzero, as x is not -1, as x is not a unit). Furthermore, this power cannot be zero (as x + 1 does not equal x^0 = 1, as x is nonzero). Thus, we would have x + 1 = x^(m + 1) for some m. Which is to say, 1 = x * (x^m - 1). But this makes x a unit, contra stipulation. Thus, there is no such ring.
[Of course, another way of looking at this is that, dropping the "nonzero nonunit" stipulation, we prove that the generating element x is either zero or a unit, and thus the rings with this property are, as noted, necessarily fields (or the trivial ring in which 0 = 1)]
That is a nicer argument than the one I had come up with though, which used the observation that all such rings must be quotients of the polynomial ring Z[x].
Of course if your synthesizer is your computer, it's a question of what the synthesizer software does, not the keyboard; and the answer is the same.
But besides using the built-in sounds in your keyboard, you can use most modern keyboards to send MIDI notes to some external (or virtual) synthesizer to play.
I just looked into handling MIDI for different temperaments. MIDI is a way to digitally represent each note as an integer (so let's pretend Middle C is the number 80, the B directly below would be 79, etc). The MIDI standard itself afaik has no support for other temperaments, but the receiving synthesizer can. So some VST instruments (virtual instruments you run on your computer for either recording or live performance) do support other temperaments, but it's not across the board. If you want to write or perform in a different temperament, you probably are limited to using VST instruments that support it.
Now I'm kicking myself for selling my gear. I had an Alesis Ion. So much fun.
It's useful if you want to write non-western music, eg Arabic or Indonesian or Indian styles which have different scalar intervals from Equal Temperment, but only if you're very concerned with authenticity. The fact is that if you're composing for a Western-music audience you can get most of the 'feel' of other musical traditions by selecting a suitable scale and playing in equal temperment. If you're composing within the musical tradition of a non-western culture you're less likely to be using something conceptually oriented around a piano keyboard in the first place. In a lot of musical traditions (and indeed country and folk music in the west) the emphasis is not so much on tonality and composition as having a good repertoire of stock musical phrases that everyone is familiar with, and virtuosity consists in skillful improvisation employing those musical tropes.
In general, you run into problems if you want more than 12 notes per octave because a) standard keyboards are really inconvenient for that and b) midi wasn't designed to support microtonal music in any consistent way, so you have to employ strange kludges, like use a separate channel for every pitch class and use pitch bend for tuning.