Richard Posner on "How I Became a Keynesian"
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Doesn't new money creation have the same effect as directly taking cash from the economy? After all, it does cheapen all available money. How, then, can he say that these costs are deferred?
Time-delay effect. In theory if everyone knows how much new money is being pumped into the economy (and exactly when it arrives, etc.) then the adjustment to reduced value of money happens instantly and you haven't accomplished much.
If instead the new money is injected stealthily into the economy (or at least: knowledge about it doesn't spread everywhere instantaneously) then the cost (in inflation) will be deferred (until "everyone figures it out" / prices re-adjust).
Thus in the short-term private sector spending would be mostly unaffected (b/c people have about the same nominal amounts of money as before and prices are still at about their previous nominal amounts) and over the longer term the inflationary effect kicks in and you pay for it.
In Keynes's time it would be pretty likely you could stealthily inject money and also it would be pretty likely that readjustment to the increased money supply would happen slowly; no internet, for one, and generally nowhere near as tightly integrated an economy as we have today.
That's not as clear today (information moves faster), but on the other hand information still takes time to work its way through the economy.
http://research.stlouisfed.org/fred2/graph/?chart_type=line&...
Suppose that it is pretty easy to look at money printing and figure out how much devaluation results (eg: prices will wind up 10% later).
Even if that's true deciding when to raise your prices (and how much to raise them) has a lot more to do with supply (of your inputs) and demand (for your products) and also what your competitors are up to.
EG:
- you raise your price now, but your competitors raise it less; they take a lot of your business pretty easily
- your customers haven't gotten "their share" of the printed money yet (eg: wages haven't caught up with the devaluation, or they haven't raised prices proportionately yet, etc.) so you lose more by raising prices than you lose by leaving them as-is
...that kind of thing.
Combined with the apparent lack of explanation for bubbles, doesn't that meant there is a gigantic gaping hole in the entire theory?
I don't quite see why The General Theory was enough to convert Posner to Keynesianism.
both of these are features NOT bugs.
income inequality is covered by the Graham essay mind the Gap, the lack of full employment has to do with the marginal utility of labor, suffice to say full employment would represent a labor market in disequilibrium (even by Keynes' definitions).
The General Theory is crap.
http://www.paulgraham.com/gap.html http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Marginal_utility