Dutch court: selling e-books second hand is legal
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The First Sale Doctrine may be difficult to apply in a world of digital media, but it is not more difficult to apply than Copyright itself. Establishing a legal right to resell digital goods is a necessary counterbalance to the evergrowing power of Copyright owners over how we use our computers.
I would support a token/watermark that proves authenticity of ownership, but can see where other more militant may say that this feels like a form of DRM (albeit without actual encryption or restrictions beyond the inclusion of the nonce to generate a unique signature).
In practice and within today's environment the idea of fingerprinting would be silly because it would be relatively easy to produce an unmarked copy, as is already the case with DRM protected .MOBI or .EPUB formats anyway.
Even with a borrowed laser printer/copier with free toner and paper I imagine I have to open the book 400 times and push it onto the copier glass and make a copy. That will take me 5 sec per spread, so say 10 spreads per minute. If I am done just under an hour, then I will have lost $100 of invoicable time. So, that wasn't 0-cost. You must have another way?
Or, alternately, do you believe that resale of a thing you made should benefit only you? Is that in perpetuity, or how long should this last?
It's kind of like "saving" money on milk by walking out of the store without paying for it. Whether you're taking possession of a finite physical good, or increasing the legally regulated supply an intangible one, you're doing something that - by law - triggers an obligation to pay another person money.
Disregarding the obligation by making a copy and retaining possession of the money which, by right, you now owe another, is where specific and definable deprivation enters the picture.
When people who understand what they're talking about refer to "theft" in relation to the unauthorized duplication of intangible goods, this is what they mean.
The problem with that analysis is that the amount of money you didn't give to the artist is the same regardless of whether you downloaded a copy. In fact, the vast majority of people in the world didn't pay the creator of the media.
And even for physical items, compensation to the initial holder is not what's relevant. If you take a gallon of milk and sneak out of the grocery store, but leave enough cash on the shelf in its stead, I think you will still be found of shoplifting, and I personally agree with that assessment. Likewise, if someone breaks into my house and takes my sculpture and leaves a million dollars of cash, that's still theft. What constitutes theft of a physical object is precisely that the item was taken not on the terms of the property holder.
And yet, demand for that media was nevertheless satisfied. So all the costs in creating it were invested with no hope of return. That may have been stupid move on the part of the author, but if the money dries up, how long do you think these people are going to go on investing their own time and resources for free?
"What constitutes theft of a physical object is precisely that the item was taken not on the terms of the property holder."
Exactly. And the same goes for intangible property. Indeed, that's the whole point of IP law: to create a situation where it's impossible to avoid a formal negotiation with the property holder without breaking the law.
A quantity of one was satisfied at a price of zero. That's a pretty trivial spot on the demand curve. It tells you nothing about the demand for that same good at nonzero prices.
There's a word for it, and it does not reflect well on the intellectual integrity of the people who use it. That's fair warning.
Back to the topic: I was speaking in generalities, but if I were to get as specific as you just did (by assigning a specific quantity of one), I wouldn't draw any sweeping conclusions before doing the intellectually honest thing by asking what happens when the quantity = n?
If, say, n = 1,000,000, then the effect is not so trivial. Moreover, the producer typically cares about the price point at which the number of sales and the value of each sale combine to produce the greatest possible revenue. While this point is not only non-obvious, it is likely to vary over time. So setting the price can be tricky. But one thing you can be sure of is that it's not zero. Moreover, all demand satisfied at the zero point is removed from the pool in which the ideal price / volume relation can be found, given that volume is a function of demand.
In other words, the optimal price in a leaky will pool will invariably be lower than one in a pool that doesn't leak. And that's how demand destruction lowers the commercial potential of a property with near-zero marginal cost.
I didn't say that the effect of zero-price downloads is trivial. I said that you cannot conclude anything about the quantity of a good that would be demanded at, say $10, by observing that there is some quantity demanded at a price of zero. This was a direct response to your sentence "And yet, demand for that media was nevertheless satisfied."
> Moreover, the producer typically cares about the price point at which the number of sales and the value of each sale combine to produce the greatest possible revenue.
Greatest profit, actually, but you're pretty close. But I don't see your point. I'm not suggesting that all media creators should price their content at zero (although that certainly is a valid strategy that can and has worked).
> Moreover, all demand satisfied at the zero point is removed from the pool in which the ideal price / volume relation can be found, given that volume is a function of demand.
Not exactly. I have purchased media legally after having downloaded the very same media illegally, and it wasn't because I lost my downloaded copy. But anyway, this claim still ignores my point, which is that the fact that there is nonzero quantity demanded at zero price tells you very little about how much is being removed from the pool at non-zero prices. To use an obvious example, a person with zero disposable income can download an album for free despite it being impossible for him to purchase it at any non-zero price. Or to use another obvious example, I can download music at least 50 times faster than I can listen to it, and certainly faster than I could afford to pay for it. If I were to download a terabyte of music this week, that tells you essentially nothing about how much music I would be capable or willing to buy legally if I were unable to pirate music.
But again, that's not the point. Indeed, asking about the amount of dilution assumes the dilution is taking place, and moreover, when it comes to artists and/or formats with established track records, demand prediction isn't a game of wild guesses. The ability to estimate, if not predict, demand is essential to the budgeting and capitalization of programs. So if you're aware that dilution is taking place at scale, you can approximate what you would have taken in w/o having to deal with the skim.
It works that way with cars, houses, and even physical books.
Do you think a ban on selling used cars would result in more new cars being sold? I don't. For one, not everybody can afford a new car. For another, people generally use the money (or trade-in value) they get from the old car to buy a new one.
Why should digital goods be any different?
Because I paid you for it. I bought it off you, just the same as if someone later re-sells a desk I made for them I can't demand further payment.
But the law of copyright is clear when it comes to physical goods. The consumer has rights too, and one of those rights is to treat physical copies of copyrighted works the same way as normal everyday physical items. It's one of the limitations that society has seen fit to impose on the rights of copyright holders; in exchange for their monopoly on the right to make copies of their works, the customers get the right to borrow, lend, resell or otherwise alienate themselves of the product. You'll find the doctrine called 'exhaustion of rights' or 'first sale', and in US Law, it's to be found in 17 USC 109.
What's happening here is that with the internet switched on and the mass trade in digital goods, the copyright holders have been spending years making the analogies with physical goods that require capital and cost money to reproduce ('You wouldn't download a car') and now the physical items analogy is being applied to the rights that everyone else has too.
I think that ruling was under the software directive rather than the IS directive, but the logic seems like it'd apply just as well to ebooks (and I doubt the two directives differ much on first sale, though I haven't checked), so I'd be surprised if we don't get a similar result here. IANAL, though.
[1] http://curia.europa.eu/juris/document/document.jsf?docid=124... , summary at http://www.linklaters.com/Publications/Publication1403Newsle... , HN discussion at https://news.ycombinator.com/item?id=4193413
http://www.osborneclarke.com/connected-insights/publications...
http://www.rockpapershotgun.com/2014/02/10/german-court-rule...
If I can buy a used copy of a digital book cheaper then there is really no reason ever to buy a new copy.
Hell , if the market is convenient and has enough liquidity then what's to stop me from buying a book, reading a chapter and then selling it and buying the same book back again at a reduced price when I want to read the second chapter?
I could see this might cause the price for ebooks to crash towards 0 unless there is something in place to rate limit purchases/sales.
So I think this can be done. You can't stop the seller from continuing to consume the content after they sell it, but at least they wont be able to sell it again. Nice clients might make it so that you have to prove that you own something through the system, without even needing DRM, but of course this is mostly an honor system.
Do they? Only if you haven't claimed the game, I believe. You cannot sell (or trade) games that you have in your library.
Toying with gifts the way you mention may get you banned, there are certain restrictions as well which may result in you not being able to launch a game since you are not in the specified region (ip check) and vpn/proxy use is against ToS so it is a gray area, you keep doing it and you get banned eventually.
When it comes to TF2 items each player has a choice whether he invests time or money to get the resources to craft items, i'm not an expert on this but since resources are made literally out of thin air there is mostly supply/demand.
You can claim it's a voucher instead of a game, but the distinction is quite meaningless to me. I can see why they do this for business reasons, but it's not something we tolerate elsewhere, generally. And why is it not a restriction if I am forbidden from doing something?
We can redefine all the words if you want, but the essential facts that I've paid them money for something and they forbid me from doing certain things with the item I purchased remain.
The danger is the case when only non-transferrable licenses exist for all media due to industry collusion.
How do you explain region codes and industry-wide DRM? (esp. for videos - non DRM'd digital video is almost nonexistent).