Cylinders in Spheres
datagenetics.com
datagenetics.com
\pi \int_-3^3 (R^2 - x^2) dx = \pi (6 R^2 - 18)
is the volume of the rotational solid without removing the cylinder. While the volume of the cylinder is given by: \pi \int_-3^3 (R^2 - 3^2) dx = \pi 6 (R^2 - 9)
As you can see the difference between the two volumes is 36 \pi.You can actually show the solution does not depend on \pi without evaluating the integral, and then compute the 'cheat' case, which would not be a cheat once you've made this observation.
That artificiality is why I don't really like that approach, though. It's a brand of thinking that generally works only on artificial problems, because the key component ("you wouldn't be asking me this if it didn't have a well-defined answer") doesn't exist on most problems. Proving that it's constant and then using the r -> 0 trick to calculate the constant is much more satisfactory to me.
Perhaps changing the footnote hint "no more information is given" to an integral part of the problem spec, and saying "no more information is required", would make the problem less artificial. There would then be a self-referencial component in the problem definition, self-referentiality being fairly common in nature and engineering.
I was amazed that just assuming that the question had one answer allowed to reduce the problem to trivially calculable one by consistently manipulating the variables that were not given.
I was also pretty proud of myself for finding this solution.
It was this awesome TV game show that consisted entirely of Martin Gardner-style puzzles and other fiendish physics/biology puzzles, and contestants who were all scientists. Does anyone by any chance remember the name of this German TV show? I would really like to look up more information about it! It deserves to be remembered.
Here is a video on youtube that shows the awesomeness of this show (don't need to know German to appreciate it- On the start of the show, putting your finger under the device makes it spin in the opposite direction... why? The audience member with the right answer would get a reward.) https://www.youtube.com/watch?v=1ObdE9n3UF4
Take a quick peek at a few other random spots of the show in the video and marvel at the awesome scientific experiments on live TV: I think that was one of the most bad ass shows ever, especially since it didn't have that pejorative "science shows are only for kids" thing happening.
I just googled the "kopf" that I remembered in combination with "wissenschaft" (science) and "fernsehen" (television), and that popped up, and I thought "that must be it".
I should have been more cautious, though. German TV at the time had quite a few interesting programs about science (in a broad sense) I remember programs where they taught differentiation and integration, live chess (or at least, it seemed like that; if a player takes ten minutes to think about a move, the commenters would explain what the players might be thinking about) by such players as Karpov, Timman, and Anand (http://en.m.wikipedia.org/wiki/Chess_of_the_Grandmasters), Hobbythek (http://de.m.wikipedia.org/wiki/Hobbythek) about DIY, (with subjects such as "we build a hot air balloon", "book binding", and "stereo photography"), and that program about personal computing whose name I don't remember.
It's really easy to get into this mode where you think "If it's not new and American it's crap" because the US in recent years has been so prodigious in creating such a large range of media of many different types, and because the US is not shy in "Americanizing" things from other countries and improving on them. However, there are definitely corners of brilliance lying in the past and in other countries that have been forgotten, and will be rediscovered in future years.
(I say "as phrased" because as other commenters observe, there are mathematically valid ways to arrive at the result.)
This reminds me of one of my favorite joke proofs from when I was in school. (It's so simple I'm sure it has other originations but AFAIK I independently recreated it.)
"The problem begins with the phrase 'Show that...' or similar. All previous problems that began with that phrase have been provable. Therefore, by induction, the claim I am being asked to prove must be correct. QED."
Unfortunately, this proof line hit a snag about halfway through my graph theory class in which we were assigned a problem out of the book that turned out to ask you to prove a false statement. (Well, a snag above and beyond the fact that that is an invalid inductive proof in general, ahem.) It was a typo and clearly accidental, but it was enough to break my proof forevermore. May you have better luck with it.
I was the last to finish my exam and handed in my booklet; the prof looked it over and noted I was the only one (out of 5) in the class to get that particular question correct. I explained to him my "reasoning". He said, "yes, that is how you're supposed to do it!"
In that case, the solution might be dependent on R, and we'd have to go through the long version. Without that mention of R, unless the problem is wrongly stated, it must be constant.
So it's still an invalid inductive proof, but it's a lot stronger than just assuming that because there is a question there is a constant answer.
Unfortunately, in this case the integrals are trivial to evaluate. I think a much more interesting problem would be one where the same approach I described works, except it's not tractable (or at least not easy) to do the integrals in your head.
Take an orange and wrap a string around its diameter. Now extend the string by 1 inch and redistribute it around the orange so that it floats an even distance from it. Do the same with the Earth, i.e. wrap, extend by 1 inch and even out into a circle. The gap betwen the string and the orange/Earth - which one is bigger?
The relationship between radius and circumference is linear (C = 2pi * r). When the circumference is increased by 1, the radius increases by 1/2pi. Therefore, the gap has the same size.
Let g be the gap. Then
C + 1 = 2pi * (r + g)
2pi * r + 1 = 2pi * (r + g)
r + 1 / 2pi = r + g
1 / 2pi = gWith that knowledge the solution seems pretty intuitive.
What I mean is if you drill 6 inches into the earth, you haven't passed through the other side...
edit: I think they mean drill a 6 inch hole of maximum width, which of course would just leave a very thin ring of the earth 6 inches tall.
It also doesn't even state that the hole must enter the sphere. A large solid sphere that internally contains a six inch hole through its center would qualify too.
This was my objection when I first encountered the problem. Everyone else seemed to understand that the hole must pass through both sides of the sphere, but that's not stated or even implied in the problem.
I made the same initial mistake of misreading through as into.
I guess the overall idea is anyway to reveal the elegant mathematical result. Wikipedia does a good job of talking clearly about it:
In geometry, the volume of a band of specified height around a sphere—the part that remains after a hole in the shape of a circular cylinder is drilled through the sphere—does not depend on the sphere's radius.
With a sufficiently wide hole, you could indeed drill a 6" hole through a spherical Earth, it'd just look more like a thin ring the diameter of the Earth than a sphere.
i think it would be more clear to phrase it starting along the lines of: position a cylinder concentric and inscribed within a sphere ...
Regardless, deserves an upvote just for the cheat answer at the end. I like that kind of reasoning!
I really was a kid. I was taken in by Gardner's April 1st column that claimed among other things that a proven solution for "Chess" indicated that white would always win and that the opening move was P-KR4 (h4 in modern notation).
Back in middle school geometry, I came up with my own strategy for proving theorems. "You wouldn't ask me to prove it if it weren't true, therefore it must be true. Q.E.D." It didn't go over well.
1) The area of a circle has a fixed ratio to the area of a square inscribed in that circle.
2) Therefore the volume of a cylinder has a fixed ratio to the volume of a square box of the same height, which sits inside that cylinder.
3) Therefore the biggest cylinder corresponds to the biggest box that can fit inside the sphere.
4) That box is obviously a cube, because what else could it be?
5) If a cube is inscribed in a unit sphere centered at the origin, the corners have coordinates ±1/√3, ±1/√3, ±1/√3.
6) Now you can calculate the volume of the cylinder in your head. Do it!
It would follow straightforwardly if we knew that the largest rectangle in a circle is a square.
The easiest way I can think of right now to see this is by Lagrange optimization (which we could also apply just as well directly to the 3d problem): the area of a rectangle of width and height <x, y> has a gradient of <y, x>, which can only be normal to the circle (which has normal vector <x, y>) when x = y.
Another way is to think of <x, y> as proportional to <cos(t), sin(t)>; the area is then cos(t) * sin(t), which is proportional to sin(2t), and thus clearly maximized when x = y.
When I was a bit younger, I was in fact the typical asshole interviewer who would ask lambda calculus questions. Now I mostly stay away from interviewing, because I can emphasize much more with the pressure that candidates feel.
1. Imagine a band stretched taught around the diameter of the earth (which, for the purposes of this question, is a smooth sphere). Now imagine that the band is raised one metre from the ground at every single point along its length. How much longer is it?
2. Imagine perfectly parallel lines painted on the floor, exactly one foot apart, and a rigid needle of length one foot. If you throw the needle to the floor at random, what is the probability that it crosses one of the lines? (This one has a nice 'cheat' solution just like the OP article).
It's a good puzzle and it helps to know the answer :)
The nice answer (referred to above as a "cheat") is to note that the sought probability is the mean number of crossings made by a 1 foot needle with the lines on the floor, where we are implicitly supposing our throw-distribution to be uniform with respect to both translation and rotation. This uniformity, along with "linearity of expectation", is such that the mean number of line-crossings from throwing any shape is simply proportional to the length of the shape (imagine breaking the shape up into many tiny straight lines, all identical except for location and orientation, the number of which is proportional to the length). Note that a circle of 1 foot diameter always makes exactly 2 crossings. Thus, the constant of proportion is 2/pi per foot, and accordingly the sought probability is 2/pi.
It would be nice to construct a first order correction term. Any ideas?
Had the author simplified the formula for "Vanswer" rather than plugging in values for h & c, he would have gotten:
Vanswer = (Pi/6) * h^3
From which is it easy to see that the answer in this particular case is 36 * Pi but it also makes clear that the answer does not depend on R.
*citation: Tom Hanks in "Castaway"