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Was lack of food a factor in either the English Civil War or the American War of Independence?

[NB I'm listening to the excellent "Revolutions" podcast at the moment http://www.revolutionspodcast.com/]

I know little about European history, but I would argue that the American War of Independence was more a formality than anything. Britain's influence was already waning and the colonies were mostly self-sufficient at that point. The hand that fed them wasn't Britain, so independence was simply a matter of not letting a third party take money out of your pocket any longer.

http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/No_taxation_without_representat...

My understanding that it wasn't the amount of tax - which was actually quite low, but the fact that they did not (and arguably, could never have) any meaningful representation within the power structures that raised these taxes.

This doesn't necessarily mean food.

It also doesn't apply 100% of the time. Does anything?

"It also doesn't apply 100% of the time. Does anything?"

Yes. Either this maxim applies 100% of the time, or there is some other statement that does.

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