Proof P!=NP (as one-way functions exist)?

Not much to comment on. See Scott Aaronson's "Eight Signs A Claimed P≠NP Proof Is Wrong". [0]

[0] http://www.scottaaronson.com/blog/?p=458

http://www.scottaaronson.com/blog/?p=304 "Ten Signs a Claimed Mathematical Breakthrough is Wrong"

It's not nice to shine the spotlight on someone to subject them to ridicule.

This paper should be reviewed by someone with a reputation in the field before being distributed widely.

I'm skimming the "simplified" version so forgive me if I'm misinterpreting this.

> However, if we could obtain the inverse function in a feasible way ...

> The answer would be very simple: First, we start executing y on the program M until 5 minutes and ...

> But, this is impossible: we could not reduce the time of 10 centuries to 40 minutes over L due to L is EXP-complete

I have VERY minimal knowledge of this, but does this proof go into why this method to "obtain the inverse function in a feasible way" is the ONLY way or that it encompasses EVERY way to do it?