I understand liquidation preferences in general -- and if LSVP were the only investor, in a first round, the usual interpretation would make sense to me.
But with prior preferreds expecting a return, and (theoretically) no pressing need for the money and such a high valuation -- that seems an excessive amount of downside protection to offer for a smallish amount of late money in an 'up' round.
I guess the interesting scenario to me is: what if the liquidation amount is enough to give the early investors a modest return, or the latecomers their money back, but not both? Can we assume that there are tiers, and even that the earlier tiers might get an X% return before the late tier gets their full investment back?