The parent didn't say that instability had increased, rather economic polarization had, but by what metric are you implying instability has decreased considering your above examples?
Klenwell said inequality is bad because it causes instability. That doesn't seem to be happening, so his theory seems to be wrong.
And to quote your prior post:
in any case, similar things happened in 1995, so no, I wouldn't categorize more of the same as an increase in instability.
So by your example, things that happened in 1995 are 'more of the same' but when presented with a counter example in the same time span (and even more recently) it shows that things have changed (reduced instability) because it has been a significant period of time? Check. That makes sense.
I'm checking out of this conversation. The contortions in your logic are just a bit too much for me. Carry on.