Apple is accused of being criminal. So showing that Google does the same thing is a refutation?
If Bank of America illegally forecloses on people, it's okay because Citibank does that too?
If Bank of America illegally forecloses on people, it's okay because Citibank does that too?
Do common law principle apply in some way here? IE, assuming there is no legal precedent, is the lack of litigation elsewhere relevant?
You can nearly count the number of substantial monopoly cases in US history on one hand.
However, take a look over the anti-trust cases just since 1994 (almost none of which have to do with monopolies):
The DOJ is concerned with suppression of competition on an industry level. Amazon/Apple arguably did so. Microsoft certainly did so. Two platforms in fierce competition, neither in a truly dominant market position, using their own Maps application, is not what the DOJ is going to worry about.