Note: I don't necessarily disagree with the author, but I am playing devil's advocate here.
Note: I don't necessarily disagree with the author, but I am playing devil's advocate here.
Yes, property seizures, arrests, etc. can happen as part of due process however there are complicated legalities associated with those things. For example, you actually need a court order to make an arrest (an arrest warrant) or a warrant to seize property. Getting a court involved means you have to prove something as well, or have enough evidence. Furthermore, other things such as danger to safety, security, flight risk, etc. are all considered by the judge.
I guess that's where due process is being totally skipped here. There is no court order, no warrant, just a threatening letter without any formal basis.
While this is how it is used colloquially, at least in the US, the parent is right: Due process can occur after suspension of rights.
US Supreme court basically says it's a balancing act to decide whether you need pre-or-post deprivation due process, and what must be part of that process.
edit: Sadly, I fear the costs would merely get passed on to tax payers eventually anyway, and would perhaps not actually promote more prudent and judicial use of powers.
Yes, if you're proposing the government compensate people for XXX, eventually the taxpayers are going to be the ones footing the bill.
Well, it would if the signal it sent to taxpayers was that they needed to be more prudent in their oversight of government. Of course, just restoring immunity is an easier way to avoid the issue, and so would be the most probable response.
One is put in jail after an arrest before trial. They require a fee to be released before trial. Even if one is acquitted of charges, they do not receive refund.
No, actually not. The police can place you in arrest, but only for a limited time. Then a judge has to decide based on various factors whether you can be kept in jail until trial, whether you can get out on bail and how large the sum is, and sure, you get the bail money back if you show up in court, even if your not acquitted. [1] The important factor is that a _judge_ gets to decide that, not a prosecutor or mere policeman.
[1] Please note that if you loaned the money from a bail bondsman, the bondsman gets to keep his fees. This however is a separate transaction.
I think due process would be limited to simply removing the DNS entry, not resolving to a site that is promoting other commercial sites. Just think if coke accused pepsi and got pepsi.com to resolve to coke.com?
Yes, it can occur after the fact. At least in the US, it's a complex balancing act whether you get pre or post-termination notice/hearing.
For example, deprivation/termination of social security benefits only require post-termination hearing.
http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Mathews_v._Eldridge
Welfare, on the other hand, requires pre-termination notice + hearing