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Why? It's an opinion piece. Thus, it expresses the opinions of the author. You can see more, in a similar style, on their blog: http://timworstall.com/

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The edit at the bottom of the post that was added in an attempt to make the article 'balanced' after Nestle's complaints makes it obvious that it is not just an opinion piece...

Just wondering, why do you use 'their' when it's quite obvious that it's a man?

Singular their has a long established use.

(http://crossmyt.com/hc/linghebr/austheir.html)

Going by that page, AndrewDucker's usage of the singular their is incorrect.

Probably for the same reason you use 'it' when it's quite obvious he's a 'he', it's a more convenient and more colloquial way of phrasing something.

*EDIT: for tone & clarity

Not sure what you mean, referring to a person as 'it' is almost universally offensive, at least in the US.

Even when referring to a child of unknown gender? Or a fetus? In Dutch, those are acceptable uses for it (or actually "het").

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