Understanding the most beautiful equation in Mathematics
functionspace.org
functionspace.org
1 - x^2/2! + x^4/4! - ...
and cos x
(and similarly with sin x). Why exactly are these equal?(Also, just a nitpick, shouldn't the addition be actually subtraction before both elippses to demonstrate the alternating sign?)
You can find it here if you'd like: https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Taylor_series#List_of_Maclauri...
e = lim_{n->infinity} (1 + 1/n)^n
Now, apply the binomial theorem:
1 + n * 1/n + n! / (2 (n-2)! n^2) + ... + n! / (m! (n - m!) n^m) + ...
Now, for each m, we have this sequence:
a_n = n! / (m! (n - m)! n^m)
Which converges on 1/m!, so we are left with this:
1 + 1 + 1/2! + 1/3! + 1/4! + ...
e^ix = cos x + i sin x
The cliched "e^(i pi) + 1 = 0" is a fairly mundane consequence of the fact that pi was chosen to make this equation hold.Sadly, this article did nothing for me. I will remember to lookup wikipedia first...
e ^ i*tau = 1
But that's because I'm a tauist.
I guess that: e ^ i*tau + 0 = 1
would be a suitable hack to get that beauty back.
b^)
I have problems with the attitude of the article you linked, though. Especially "Therefore, I’d like to complain to the thousands of people who find Euler’s identity stunning and beautiful." followed by a snide list of reasons why someone might find it beautiful. It's very common when doing math that something amazing is obvious an hour later. I believe that we are better served by reminding ourselves that (a) nobody knows everything, and (b) the basics facts are actually very beautiful.
http://betterexplained.com/articles/intuitive-understanding-...
1) Using Taylor Series, show that exp(ix)=cos(x)+i*sin(x).
2) Then the result is trivial for x=pi
This image helps:
Euler's identity is a beautiful equation, because it ties together several of the most fundamental objects of mathematics, with one occurrence of each, with no wasted boilerplate. The notation is part of the beauty. It looks darn good, on the surface in addition to the beyond the ideas behind the surface.
http://www.amazon.com/Abstract-Algebra-Edition-David-Dummit/...
When I learned it, though, it was from this Dover book, which is more affordable:
http://www.amazon.com/Elements-Abstract-Algebra-Dover-Mathem...
Euler defined the function e^x in analysis as:
e^x = lim(1+x/n)^n
as x tends to infinityShould be "as n tends to infinity".
http://acko.net/files/mathbox/MathBox.js/examples/ComplexExp...
I don't know of any cases in which it makes things possible, but there are plenty of cases where it makes things practical.
Is there any proof that the equation remains true when x -> ix transformation is made? OK, I know there is formal proof for this; can someone explain please? :-)
It should be as n tends to infinity.</pedantic>
e^(i*pi)i = 1^i
or
e^-pi = 1^iwhich seems very strange - e and pi are real numbers, so 1 to the i'th power must also be real?