Anyways, if morality isn't objective, why get offended when someone insists that it is? He isn't doing anything immoral...
Well then by your "easy" definition, theft (within the context of piracy) is not a threatening force, is not fraudulent nor does it require force.
So you have just defined Piracy as a moral thing to do.
You just lost your own original argument by your own definition. Nice job.
You are forcefully (and wrongly) obtaining media in that you have not first obtained the consent of the owner or producer.
Edit: the physical meaning of force ("I forced the lock") doesn't really apply either...
It's certainly not force or threat, so it must be fraud. In which case:
Can you explain how one determines, in an objective way, whether or not an act is fraudulent?