This may no longer be a wise or viable strategy, and it is certainly a good way for most people to get ridiculed and demonetized when they even suggest that such a thing may be possible, and it is surely frowned-upon at the highest international and diplomatic levels. But again, as a student of history, it has been an actual process that did happen, and had lasting effects, and it was repeatedly employed, so surely there must have been some rationale or benefit to the process, rather than pure evil or malevolence, whether it happened 736 or 87 years ago.
By your argument, those things are perfectly fine, yes? If not, why is forced denaturalization/deportation perfectly reasonable because it has been done in the past, but those other things are not?
Please do elucidate. I'm sure we'd all like to hear your arguments.