Yes, that’s how court / legal precedent works - for better and for worse.

Feel free to consult an attorney.

Edit: I thought the case went further up - but, “persuasive precedent” for other jurisdictions now exists all the same.

Edit2: since I’m seeing the username of someone with a decent clue,

> and no ceiling

was there one on paper for the hiring standards of the dept in the case in question?

Does that matter?, if there’s no legal issue with using it as a disqualifying factor? - for any candidate - whether or not they even score well?