Is this true in any context other than a potential fourth amendment violation by an agent of the state?
This does say that
> Arguably, the protections contained in the [self-defense] statute include what is referred to in legal parlance as the “curtilage” of the property (a home’s porch, steps, garage, or yard)
But the reasoning is, specifically, that defending yourself against someone who is in the curtilage must be protected, because defending yourself against someone who is "attempting to enter" your habitation is protected, and it's impossible to attempt to enter the habitation without being in the curtilage.
This is not compatible with your analysis, which assumes that a person present in the curtilage has already entered the habitation.