now the news is full of all these tarriffs about canada?
What's the factual non-partisan reasoning by which trump has been found not to have the power to create tarriffs, but is still doing it with canada?
whitehouse.gov/fact-sheets/2026/07/fact-sheet-president-donald-j-trump-imposes-additional-tariffs-on-canada
The Supreme Court ruled against the tariffs because while it allows the president to regulate foreign imports as a measure against economic threats; it does not specifically grant the president power to impose tariffs, duties or other taxes which is typically a power that belongs to Congress.
The tariffs on Canada are now being imposed under Section 338 of 1930's Tariff Act which allows the president the authority to apply up to 50% tariffs on countries the president finds has "discriminated", directly or indirectly, against the United States.
The ruling wasn't as generalised as that. What it said was that the president doesn't have the authority to impose tariffs under the provisions of the International Emergency Economic Powers Act, which Trump had cited as the basis for some tariffs. That made those tariffs effectively illegal, but the ruling said nothing about tariffs which had other legislative provisions as their legal basis. The tariffs that you see today cite some other rule as their basis rather than the IEEPA.
Until anyone does, "crime is legal", as coffeezilla says.