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It can, in the same way the South African goverment could discriminate by race during the Apartheid.

That something is constitutional doesn't mean it is morally acceptable

I wouldn't compare letting someone with "only" at least 250000 Eur/y in income anything similar to apartheid.

He was making a valid analogy: both events satisfied your requirements. Where do you draw the line? What is the differentiating factor between them?

Of course is not similar, but the point is only because it is legal and the goverment can do it, does not make it right.