In practice, infinite sets never exist as enumerations of every element, but as ways to generate more elements along with descriptions for which elements to include. Infinite set theories allow for equivocating a finite description with the infinite enumeration. In contrast, programming languages usually make a distinction between data (always finite) and data generation (possibly infinite). I would think that counts as a "disproof" in a way.
1. Fix a formal system S. In the LLM example, it uses first-order arithmetic, but I don't see why we wouldn't be able to use ZFC.
2. Let D be the set of subsets of the natural numbers N which are definable by a finite formula in S.
3. There are countably many finite formulas, so |D| <= |N|.
4. Cantor's theorem says that the size of the power set of N is greater than |N|.
5. Therefore there must be subsets of N which are not definable by a finite formula in S.
If you disagree with this, I would be interested to know.https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Axiom_of_infinity#Independence
https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Constructive_analysis#Anti-cla...
I've come to believe that many related incompatible theories have interpretations between each other. For example, hyperbolic geometry has a Euclidean-like Poincare disk model, and Euclidean space exists locally in a hyperbolic space. Boolean logic contains intuitionistic logic (just add the law of excluded middle), but intuitionistic logic contains Boolean logic through the double negation translation. Similar might happen for finite set theories, infinite set theories, and neutral set theories. The fun includes finding the right translation so that we can all enjoy our different tastes in axioms.