"The set is not collinear" here means "there is no straight line passing through all the points simultaneously", not "there is no straight line passing through some three points".
There's nothing novel here. I feel like I'm taking fucking crazy pills.
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. . .As soon as the set of points are defined to be non-collinear in Euclidean space, this property must be true, purely from the definition of the problem. To suggest otherwise would be to violate either the problem definition or the axioms of Euclidean geometry.
EITHER all points are on the same line
OR 2 of the points are on the line only for them