Pairs nicely with the fact that smell is the sense most likely to be experienced differently between two people :)
If that's true, we're left with a question equivalent to "does everyone see the same red?". As far as I know, the pure version of that question cannot be answered because subjective experiences of sensation cannot be transferred. And at that point, I'd say the manner in which they're experienced differently is equivalent.
Looking into it, it seems like smell has the most potential for genetic variance: https://pmc.ncbi.nlm.nih.gov/articles/PMC3990440/
That said, I can’t find any direct research comparing perceived senses. So they (and now I) might have oversimplified.
Thanks for the link, looks interesting!