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Comment by bediger4000 | Hacker News Reader

This "broad conception" is pretty well documented as what Congress wanted at the time of passage of 14th Amendment. It's been considered "settled law" for ages. The only real reason it's come to SCOTUS is that a particular political faction wants it to, and the media gives that particular faction more credence, and more coverage. So there's two things here:

1. An artificially whipped-up "question".

2. Conservative bias in the media.

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> Conservative bias in the media.

Depending on how you count, something like 96%, 94%, 65% or 87% of mainstream media employees lean left. Of course this matters less and less as customers tune out and their influence wanes.

https://ballotpedia.org/Fact_check/Do_97_percent_of_journali...

Now do the management/ownership side.

Thank you! Do they make the decisions about what stories to work and to run?

Yes, educated people tend to lean left, since the right is so anti-intellectual. But virtually all media in this country (both social and legacy) belongs to the far right pedophile oligarchs currently running this country to the ground to fatten their pockets.

The media in the US generally leans left (with a few notable exceptions).

This is a cherished American belief, but I don't think it's true after 2016, when NYT gave Trump a significant boost with their coverage of Clinton's emails, and continues to sanewash Trump, after 2024, when billionaires like Soon-Shiong and Bezoa personally directed their paper's editorial stance towards Harris, after Aksel Springer unveils a corporate conservative bias policy.

I think it's blatant now, but evidence suggests that "liberal bias" was never more than a partisan accusation.

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