I had assumed the parent was ragebaiting with the explicit redefinition of "wealth inequality" as "creating wealth". Is that the definition you're operating under?
Still, I can rephrase my contention: In a basically capitalist society, growing societal aggregate wealth necessarily grows inequality. Even a Nordic welfare state, which many (including me) hold up as a robust way to promote income equality, is going to show more variance in the size of pie pieces as the size of the pie grows (even when you account for taxes).