By law the US govt is able to compel access to any data controlled by an American company, regardless of where those companies operate. There doesn’t need to be specific evidence of this case, it’s true of all cases.

Some American companies have tried to establish convoluted workarounds in Europe to get around this, but as far as I’m aware it hasn’t been tested in court yet.

That was the info of individuals = citizen's data. Am I wrong? What would be considered "citizen data" just to be clear?