Sincere question: don't most if not all Western nations have essentially the same problem, to a (perhaps?) lesser degree?

I am far from being an economist or political scientist, but that's what it appears to me. Every government I can think of puts its collective thumb on the scale in the economy somehow. And I can't judge which of the metrics cited (negative productivity growth, fertility below replacement, etc) are causal and which are incidental. So I don't understand how the claim is supported by the data.

Or is the entire piece just somebody's opinion with an agenda? I'd love to hear from someone unbiased who knows better.