As the great patio11 said:
> Raise the prices. Then raise the prices. Then when you're done with that, raise the prices.
> Raise the prices. Then raise the prices. Then when you're done with that, raise the prices.
1st offence = base fee
2nd offence = base fee + minimal % of wealth fee
3rd offence = base fee + higher % of wealth fee
offences thereafter = goto 3rd offence until some breaking point condition like gaol/jail.
Otherwise the rich will happily pay to do whatever the hell they want.
> prove your claim by providing some evidence that the richer you are the more speeding tickets you get.
How/where did the grandparent comment claim that the rich get more speeding tickets? Even if the rich speed at a lower rate, would that make %-based fines a negative improvement?
> a problem that doesn’t exist
My assumption was the speeding is a problem no matter whether rich or poor, and that both exist. Is there disagreement there?
Instead, I think their point was that even a $100 fine for a poor person may impact their ability to pay for groceries, childcare, etc, whereas for someone who has $10 million, etc., even a $1,000 fine will not impact their ability to pay for groceries, childcare, etc as they still have $9,999,000.
You may note that a first offence makes no difference.
It's only 2nd offences have a token minimal % - which should put a rich person on notice that such can occur.
It's only 3rd and further offences that could seriously differentiate rich vs poor in penalty.