I’m assuming they think that rich people spend more so they pay more. This is a fallacy, because poor people spend a higher portion of their income (over a 100% a lot of the time).
i.e. A burger wrapper doesnt care about economic status.
Do you think the burger wrapper just automatically winks out of existence for poor people?
How exactly that load is divvied up by society, where it would apply, is not something I know the answer to.
The economists I've read disagree strongly.