Or, as I have commented elsewhere here, the idea that statements like "fMRI shows decreased activity" are ever valid is just fundamentally suspect (lower BOLD response could mean less inhibition or less excitation, and this is a rather crucial difference that fMRI simply can't distinguish). EDIT: Or to be more precise: it may well be that fMRI research suggests less metabolic activity in certain regions, but this could mean the region is actually firing more than normal, less than normal, is more efficient than normal, etc., and interpreting anything about what is functioning differently in ADHD, given this uncertainty, is what is going to be suspect.
Your analogy is largely correct IMO.