[1] https://commons.wikimedia.org/wiki/File:Napoleon_in_burning_...
[1] https://commons.wikimedia.org/wiki/File:Napoleon_in_burning_...
> If I would take S.P., I would hold Russia by the head. If I take Kiev, I will hold Russia by legs. If I take Moscow, I will reach right into its heart!"
https://history.stackexchange.com/questions/27588/why-did-na...
You think a heavily defeated Napoleon would help him a lot in that matter? Realistically, there was no third option, going in guaranteed than one of them would be heavily defeated.
At that point in time, Napoleon was in command of the largest and most heavily armed military force in history. And he assembled it to go beg the Tsar to blockade a third country? It doesn't make any sense.
1. Napoleon's goal was to pursue and defeat the Russian army in the field, not necessarily capture cities. Going north would have meant releasing the pressure on the main russian field armies and let them engage his main force at their discretion while exposing his flank.
2. St. Petersburg remained the political and economic capital of Russia; St. Petersburg never displaced Moscow in real world importance.
3. St. Petersburg was shielded from land and sea with prepared fortifications on both and Napoleon lacked a fleet to effectively blockade it.
4. Its in the middle of a very dense forest and swamp, not the the best logistics and ability to maintain a siege.
The Nazis made the same choice in WWII and even though they were able to control the Baltics and had Finland as an ally never seriously threatened to take the city.
There was an 18 month siege of SP during WWII. SP starved and people there resorted to cannibalism to survive. I don't remember if it was ever taken but the Germans definitely tried to. And the situation there was ghoulish, so even if they didn't, they almost did.
Also what surprises me, after years of several revolutions and chaos in France, how could Napoleon gather such a large army.
[1] https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/War_of_the_First_Coalition
Conscription + France was basically the China of Europe at that point: it was almost as populated as the rest of Europe combined.
France then had a very, very, early demographic transition which dramatically limited its population. Had France followed the demographic path of England or Germany, France would have around 250M inhabitants today.
That doesn't seem to be correct. From Wikipedia: "During the Middle Ages, more than one-quarter of Europe's total population was French;[8] by the seventeenth century, this had decreased slightly to one-fifth. By the beginning of the nineteenth century, other European countries, such as Germany and Russia, had caught up with France and overtaken it in number of people." https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Demographics_of_France