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Regardless of if you agree with the US Constitution's perspective on self-evident rights, your point here does not negate what they said, simply indicates that the Russian government is not constrained in the same way the US government is.

Infringement on a right doesn't mean it doesn't exist. The perspective with which we look at rights vs. privileges matters in a society, so it's not just semantics.

Says the amendment: "Congress shall make no law...."

https://constitution.congress.gov/constitution/amendment-1/

Why would an US constitution amendment have any effect in Russia?

Russia is completely irrelevant to the argument I presented. As a separate point, Russia is also a shithole which I refuse spending time thinking about.

Says God, would say the framers.