Most elegant tin of beans I've seen in a while.
If I understand your argument: if there's no empirical consequence, what's the point of the distinction, right?
If I understand your argument: if there's no empirical consequence, what's the point of the distinction, right?
Maybe he was cheating before or after, sure, but not during. No court would buy that.
...At least, that's how I interpret 'empirical consequence' - something observable or detectable, at very least in principle. Do you mean something different?
(Right this minute I'm coming from an empiricist framework where acts require consequences. If you're approaching this from a realist or rationalist view -which I suspect-, I'd be interested to hear it!)
btw--if you'd like to keep the conversation going, email is on my personal webpage in my bio.