https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Naming_law
Furthermore there is a standardized subset of Unicode codepoints which is intended to encompass all the legal names in Europe:
https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/DIN_91379
> normative subset of Unicode Latin characters, sequences of base characters and diacritic signs, and special characters for use in names of persons, legal entities, products, addresses etc
Why? How do you come to this conclusion?
Think of it as though Unicode decided that the letter "m" wasn't needed to write English text, since you can just write "rn" and it'll be close enough. Someone named "James" might want to have their name spelled correctly instead of "Jarnes", but that wouldn't be possible. Han unification did essentially this.
Prove me wrong with a counter-example.
First search result.
Both character fall into the first category I mentioned, no variants.
Note that GP claimed "not representable" (not "not represented"). Based on what I know, that claim feels quite wrong.
I think "reasonable" must be limited to the subset that the population of that country can reasonably be expected to be literate against; otherwise transliteration is necessary.