If you pay someone to make a chair, you don’t deduct the salary. Instead you create an asset valued at what you paid to build it, then depreciate it over time.
The arguement for this is that it would be inconsistent to do otherwise. After all, why should buying a chair from someone else be different than paying an employee to do it?
It’s worth noting that this change brings the USA in line with international financial reporting standards, so it’s not like it’s some crazy unique idea or anything.
Can you be more specific?
> this change brings the USA in line with international financial reporting standards
Which ones?
And an asset doesn’t come into existence out of nowhere. It comes into existence because you paid money for it. And the money you pay for it is indeed the persons salary.
Now sure, it’s possible to get away with not doing this, but it’s not correct by accounting standards to do so.
As for which standards, International Financial Reporting Standard (IFRS)
Probably exposing how little I know of accounting... If you buy a chair you have to track it and deduct it over the course of X years?! It's not just an expense the year you bought it?
A $100 chair is unlikely to get amortized, but a $100 chair as part of $450k office remodel might.
No, it's not.
Sec. 174 explicitly and specifically refers only to software development.
Also, this:
> If you pay someone to make a chair, you don’t deduct the salary. Instead you create an asset valued at what you paid to build it, then depreciate it over time.
is also incorrect. For most tax filers, and for most things, under current law, you have a choice whether to deduct the expense in the year in which it incurred or to amortize it.
If they make the chair. What if they only draw up blueprints for a chair that isn't manufactured? What if the chair is never manufactured, or won't be manufactured for two years? Until the software is licensed and installed at a customer site, how is this at all like making a chair?
The question is really, payroll is made up of builders, vs nonbuilders.
Are devs different from other builders? The dirty secret is that they are not.
Ford engineers, P&G food researchers, and architect salaries are capitalized just like Software development costs.
But, in the case of software development, only those builders are getting a nice subsidy.
A world where we treat all workers as expenses is not likely since it means the end of US GAAP. So, we must treat all builders like builders . There shouldn't be special favors for some any specific builder group.
I'd say the majority of the posters on this thread who are answering questions (as opposed to asking questions) believe this is not the case. What is a good source for learning more about which categories of employee salaries are amortized? Besides becoming a CPA.
This is why I can't support re-implementing Section 174. Software engineers are now being treated in the tax code like everybody else, and they don't like that change.
I’m not sure whether I understand why that now applies only to software and not other things.
If you’re a body shop lending out devs to build software for other people, that would be different