Interesting to me how Wernicke’s Aphasia works then (which I have occasionally; my epilepsy stems from there + broca’s area). Could you explain that?
I feel weird answering even if I infer the right question because it feels tautological. If you have Wernicke's Aphasia does it not create the possibility that I already have but your condition resulted in misunderstanding. Given the condition does it not create a high probability that a response will similarly be misunderstood? Is not Anosognosia quite common?
Maybe I'm really misunderstanding but honestly I'm not sure what you're asking