It seems like most people are just asking for the simple function piping everyone expects from the |> syntax, but that doesn't look likely to happen.
It seems like most people are just asking for the simple function piping everyone expects from the |> syntax, but that doesn't look likely to happen.
I'm not a JS dev so idk what member property support is.
"bar"
|> await getFuture(%);
|> baz(await %);
|> bat(await %);
My guess is the TC committee would want this to be more seamless.This also gets weird because if the `|>` is a special function that sends in a magic `%` parameter, it'd have to be context sensitive to whether or not an `async` thing happens within the bounds. Whether or not it does will determine if the subsequent pipes are dealing with a future of % or just % directly.
In reality it would look like:
"bar"
|> await getFuture()
|> baz()
|> await bat()
(assuming getFuture and bat are both async). You do need |> to be aware of the case where the await keyword is present, but that's about it. The above would effectively transform to: await bat(baz(await getFuture("bar")));
I don't see the problem with this. "bar"
|> await getFuture()
How would you disambiguate it from your intended meaning and the below: "bar"
|> await getFutureAsyncFactory()
Basically, an async function that returns a function which is intended to be the pipeline processor.Typically in JS you do this with parens like so:
(await getFutureAsyncFactory())("input")
But the use of parens doesn't transpose to the pipeline setting well IMO
Given this example:
(await getFutureAsyncFactory("bar"))("input")
the getFutureAsyncFactory function is async, but the function it returns is not (or it may be and we just don't await it). Basically, using |> like you stated above doesn't do what you want. If you wanted the same semantics, you would have to do something like: ("bar" |> await getFutureAsyncFactory())("input")
to invoke the returned function.The whole pipeline takes on the value of the last function specified.
a |> await f()
and a |> (await f())
Might be expected to do the same thing.But the latter is syntactically undistinguishable from
a |> await returnsF()
What do you think about a |> f |> g
Where you don't really call the function with () in the pipeline syntax? I think that would be more natural. a |> (await f())()
which removes any sort of ambiguity. Your first example calls f() with a as its first argument while the second (after my fix) calls and awaits f() and then invokes that result with a as its first argument.For the last example, it would look like:
a |> (await f())() | g()
assuming f() is still async and returns a function. g() must be a function, so the parenthesis have to be added.