When using gestures, rules of grammar remain S-O-V
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My first language, Bengali, an Indo-European language spoken in Bangladesh and thus distantly related to Latin, is S-O-V. I'm assuming from this that Hindi and other Indian subcontinental languages are as well.
I think S-O-V makes sense when communicating visually. Say someone kicks a ball. Initially you see a person and a ball. Then you see the person kick it. The action comes after the presence of the two objects. You don't see a person, see him kick, and only then see the ball.
Can you share an example? Admittedly, my French isn't too hot, but I'm curious.
I'd be interested in an example Spanish (which I'm a lot better at than French) too.
Je le mange - I eat it.
Je tu le donne - I give it to you.
'le' means 'it', and 'tu' means 'you'. So literally, the first example would be "I it eat", and the second would be "I to you it give".
I don't know Spanish very well, but I pulled this off of Google translate:
Yo lo vi - I saw it
I'm assuming 'lo' is 'it', and 'vi' is 'saw'.
Duh! Yes, you are of course correct. My excuse for forgetting: familiarity might not always breed contempt, but sometimes it breeds a real lack of observation!
As an aside, archaic (and archaically styled) Spanish is often SVO even with object pronouns. So you'll see things like "díjole" in Quijote.
(It's "te" and not "tu" in French, btw. Tu's only used as a subject.)
push memory boy
push memory ball
push action kick
evaluate.
boy.ball.kick()
or just boy ball kick
This also reminds me of the way verbs can accumulate in German. (http://www.c2.com/cgi/wiki?ReadsLikeGerman) :)Anyhow, with this in mind, translating the above is absolutely trivial:
((action kick) (object boy) (object ball)) for prefix, or
((object boy) (object ball) (action kick)) for postfix
In Forth, which is a postfix and stack-based language, "boy ball kick" would work by pushing boy and ball on the stack, and kick would pop two values, the kicker and kickee.
The above expression illustrates a verb executed on a subject and object which are two distinct entities. This is your Forth example (which I agreed with earlier).
In the dot syntax though, you use it as an indicator of possessiveness, in which case the subject is reduced to "ball", modified by "boy". Furthermore "is kicked" is a passive form, which means it has an implied subject, which is the boy. Therefore the completed expression cannot be written as-is; you'd have to insert the subject (boy) into the expression and delineate it as a separate entity.
boy.kick(boy.ball) would convey this meaning. boy.ball.kicked() could also convey it, but in this case, the innards of kicked() must make reference to boy.
I'm not sure how relatively important the subject is versus the object for resolving ambiguity, but I'm hypothesizing that by putting the subject as early as possible in a phrase, SOV and SVO languages take advantage of priming effects (see http://en.wikipedia.org/w/index.php?oldid=257117356) to speed the parsing of a sentence.
(Edit: As a side note, I'm curious about free word order languages such as Russian -- with what frequency and under what situations do they use the various word orders?)
Regarding your other response above, which I mostly agree with, there is a common conception among Japanese speakers that in English, since the action is mentioned halfway in the sentence, one can often predict the meaning of the sentence and effectively stop listening; in Japanese (or any SOV), one has to pay attention to the end otherwise they will have understood nothing.
This is somewhat true, in that you basically have to "suspend processing" until the verb appears, whereupon can you "fire" the processes. (The part that is mistaken by the Japanese is that when an English speaker figures out the rest of the sentence is because the object is inferred. But the same level of understanding is available.)
Company A -> Company B -> Acquire