Would anybody more knowledgeable in the topic help me understand the results of the first graph? Paper is here: https://sci-hub.se/https://psycnet.apa.org/doi/10.1037/hea00... (I haven't finished reading it) Seems the authors claim it's statistically significant, but does it matter if it's clinically significant? 1mm difference seems pretty small, and they conclude that it suggests that it 'can harnessed to improve treatment outcomes'. I'd have understood if the conclusion were that effects exist at all, but not if the claim is that it's useful for something else.