Most people that use drugs do not suffer homelessness. They experience no social problems at all.
Even if there was a correlation, why do you assume there is a causation?
Even if there was a correlation, why do you assume there is a causation?
But it sounds to me like, for you, the unfettered freedom to use recreational drugs is an inherent good, and that you don't think it should be discouraged even if can be shown to lead to increased homelessness.
The straw person you've now added fills a similar function. You're clearly in search of rhetorical positions that lets you keep repeating yourself without taking the risk of participating in rational discourse.
How common is it that wealthy people become homeless because they recreationally consume wine? Is the prevalence the same as for other groups?